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Old 27-Jan-2007, 20:15
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Default Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

In the following sentence, is 'have' used as a causative verb?

I have ten more years left.

Thank you for your help.

Jay
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Old 27-Jan-2007, 20:24
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

wrong person to ask.i'm still struggling to understand what a verb is? any suggestions?
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Old 27-Jan-2007, 22:18
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

Quote:
Originally Posted by driftwood View Post
In the following sentence, is 'have' used as a causative verb?

I have ten more years left.

Thank you for your help.

Jay
Hello Jay

I would take "have" in your example in its possessive sense. "Left" post-modifies "years", and means "remaining".

These are examples of causative "have":

1. Have MrQ do the washing up = cause MrQ to do the washing up.
2. I had the plumber install a new shower = I caused the plumber to install a new shower.

All the best,

MrP
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Old 27-Jan-2007, 23:18
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

Quote:
Originally Posted by MrPedantic View Post
Hello Jay

I would take "have" in your example in its possessive sense. "Left" post-modifies "years", and means "remaining".

These are examples of causative "have":

1. Have MrQ do the washing up = cause MrQ to do the washing up.
2. I had the plumber install a new shower = I caused the plumber to install a new shower.

All the best,

MrP

Thank you for your response.

I was referring to the passive causative structure in 410 Grammar: Causatives
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Old 28-Jan-2007, 00:07
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

It (have) is neither active nor causative in your example. It is merely the verb of ownership.

I have ten more years left.
I have a Toyota pickup truck.
The Toyota has a flat tire.
The tire has a nail in it.

The above examples are all verbs of ownership.
The following are examples of causative usages.

I will have the mechanic repair the tire. (active causative, the mechanic is the agent)
I will have the tire fixed tomorrow. (passive causative, unknown agent)
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Old 28-Jan-2007, 03:48
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

Quote:
Originally Posted by driftwood View Post
Thank you for your response.

I was referring to the passive causative structure in 410 Grammar: Causatives
Let's take a look.

We had our door fixed. Yukiko had her hair cut. Sanjay had the windows cleaned.


Here's the pattern. In the fist one, our door was fixed by someone else; the second, her hair was cut by someone else, and the third, the windows were cleaned by someone else. Your example below doesn't fit into the passive causative pattern:

Ex: I have 10 more years left.
=> ?10 more years are left by someone else

Hope that helps.
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Old 28-Jan-2007, 09:19
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Casiopea View Post
Let's take a look.

We had our door fixed. Yukiko had her hair cut. Sanjay had the windows cleaned.


Here's the pattern. In the fist one, our door was fixed by someone else; the second, her hair was cut by someone else, and the third, the windows were cleaned by someone else. Your example below doesn't fit into the passive causative pattern:

Ex: I have 10 more years left.
=> ?10 more years are left by someone else

Hope that helps.
I will have my homework done by Monday.

Do you think I mean I will have it done by someone else?
I don't think so.
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Old 28-Jan-2007, 10:29
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

Quote:
Originally Posted by driftwood View Post
I will have my homework done by Monday.

Do you think I mean I will have it done by someone else?
Gee, I hope not. 'Have' as a causative verb expresses the idea that the person wants something to be done for them. Consider these,

Future Perfect
Ex: Most students will have taken sixty credits by the time they graduate.
Ex: My brother will have graduated Harvard before I enter school.
Ex: I will have done my homework by Monday.

Passive Causative
Ex: Most students will have sixty credits taken (from them) by the time they graduate.
Ex: ?My brother will have Harvard graduated before I enter school.
Ex: I will have my homework done by Monday.

Does that help?
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Old 28-Jan-2007, 22:13
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

Just as a footnote:

There is a slight ambiguity in the causative structure, when the agent is not explicitly expressed. Thus:

1. I will have X done by [time/date].

can mean either of these:

a) I will myself do X by [time/date].
b) I will cause X to be done (by someone else) by [time/date].

However, context usually clarifies the agent, e.g.

2. Don't worry, I'll have the washing-up done by 6 o/c. Look, it's only five-thirty, and I've nearly finished.

3. Don't worry, I'll have the car fixed by Thursday. I'll take it into the garage in the morning.

The difference between these examples and your original sentence is that the past participles belong to verbs of action ("done", "fixed"): something has been done to something else.

In your original example, however, the past participle does not denote an action. Cf.

4. If I give you two eggs, I'll only have six left for myself.

where "left" means "remaining": nothing has been done to the six eggs.

In such cases, the "have" is possessive, rather than "causative".

MrP
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Old 29-Jan-2007, 12:41
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Default Re: Is 'have' used as a causaative verb?

Nice addition, MrP.
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