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#1
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| Did I speak to him or not? |
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#2
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| Good question!
__________________ Red5 Webmaster, UsingEnglish.com |
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#3
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Navi,If you said "I am ashamed to speak with him", my guess is that you have not yet spoken to them. If you said "I was ashamed to speak with him", I think it is a bit ambiguous and not certain given the context. For example: A1: "Why did you not speak with him?" B1: "I was ashamed to speak with him." A2: "Why did react like that after speaking with him?" B2: "I was ashamed to speak with him, so that's why I reacted like that." A3: "How did you find your aural test?" B3: "At first I was ashamed to speak with the examiner because I worried about my grasp of the language, but as time went on I relaxed a bit and no longer felf ashamed."
__________________ Red5 Webmaster, UsingEnglish.com |
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#4
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| Thanks Red5, but the problem is that you have changed the sentence. "I was ashamed OF SPEAKING..." not "TO speak"! I had asked the "to speak" one before! I think it was Mike who had answered it. "I was ashamed of speaking to him." |
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#5
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| A1: "Why did you not speak with him?" B1: "I was ashamed of speaking with him." A2: "Why did react like that after speaking with him?" B2: "I was ashamed of speaking with him, so that's why I reacted like that." A3: "How did you find your aural test?" B3: "At first I was ashamed of speaking with the examiner because I worried about my grasp of the language, but as time went on I relaxed a bit and no longer felf ashamed." There doesn't seem to be much difference, but I might well be wrong. I'll duck out and let the real teachers take over before I confuse the hell out of everyone!
__________________ Red5 Webmaster, UsingEnglish.com |
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#6
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#7
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This new version changes an infinitive "to speak" to a gerund "(of) speaking". We often talk about the difference in meaning between gerunds and infinitives in some constructions. This is a case, IMO, where the two verbals have different meanings. The infinitive form is often used to describe a potential action, while the gerund is often used to describe a concrete action. When one says "I was ashamed to speak to him", the potential conversation is making one uncomfortable, but one might have overcome the discomfort. When one says "I was ashamed of speaking to him", it is a real action that caused the shame. I would, therefore, conclude that you spoke to him and that made you ashamed. :wink: |
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#8
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I like to walk. (potential) I like walking. (concrete) However, in the case of 'was ashamed of', we have a State of being 'ashamed': be + participle + 'of', with focus on the state of being: I was ashamed of speaking to him. As is, we do not know if the speaking event happened or didn't happen. Additional context would be required to determine that. :wink: |
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#9
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In my opinion, I haven't started yet to speak to him, right? And If you put this sentence into past tense, then the result remains the same, only the time of event is changed. |
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#10
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I am ashamed of speaking to him is ambiguous. It could mean, 1. I am ashamed of speaking to him, so I won't speak to him. 2. I am ashamed of speaking to him, but despite the fact that I feel ashamed, I will overcome that feeling and speak to him anyway. I was ashamed of speaking to him is also ambiguous: 1. I was ashamed, so I didn't speak to him. 2. I was ashamed, but I spoke to him anyway. |
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