It is difficult that clause

[siruss]

It is difficult to speak English fluetly as a second langage.
-->I know this is proper.


It is difficult that we speak English fluently as a second language.
--> But, this is not proper.

I'm wondering if there is any logic that I should understand.

Help me~

[svartnik]

Originally Posted by siruss

It is difficult to speak English fluetly as a second langage.
-->I know this is proper.


It is difficult that we speak English fluently as a second language.
--> But, this is not proper.

I'm wondering if there is any logic that I should understand.

Help me~

"It is difficult that we speak English fluently as a second language."

(The fact) that we speak English very well is difficult -- nonsense, but okay grammatically

'It is difficult to speak English very well.'
To speak English is difficult -- makes sense

[siruss]

Originally Posted by svartnik

"It is difficult that we speak English fluently as a second language."

(The fact) that we speak English very well is difficult -- nonsense, but okay grammatically --> I've thought of it after posting today.
The fact that ~ is difficult. Sounds strange to me, too.

'It is difficult to speak English very well.'
To speak English is difficult -- makes sense
--> No problem with that. Sounds right to me.

1. It is difficult for us to speak English fluently as a second language.
2. It is difficult that we speak English fluently as a second language.


Question 1) What is the difference in meaning between two sentences?

Question 2) Sentence no. 1 is grammatically correct when it is semantically wrong?

[svartnik]

Originally Posted by siruss

1. It is difficult for us to speak English fluently as a second language.
2. It is difficult that we speak English fluently as a second language.


Question 1) What is the difference in meaning between two sentences?

Question 2) Sentence no. 1 is grammatically correct when it is semantically wrong?

1 is okay, 2 is not
"Sentence no. 1 is grammatically correct when it is semantically wrong?" yes

[siruss]

Originally Posted by svartnik

1 is okay, 2 is not
"Sentence no. 1 is grammatically correct when it is semantically wrong?" yes

Sorry that I don't see at all.
How could anything semantically wrong be grammatically correct?
I think something semantically wrong should be grammatically wrong.

I just want to know that there is any logic behind them.
I'm non-native and my native language is totally different from English.
So I want to know there is something that I missed.

Thank you for your replies, though.
Have a good day.

[svartnik]

Originally Posted by siruss

Sorry that I don't see at all.
How could anything semantically wrong be grammatically correct?
I think something semantically wrong should be grammatically wrong.

I just want to know that there is any logic behind them.
I'm non-native and my native language is totally different from English.
So I want to know there is something that I missed.

Thank you for your replies, though.
Have a good day.

It is wonderful that we speak English
It is difficult that we speak English

which is incorrect grammar, IYO?
(English is not physics.)
This is how the language works and that is that

[siruss]

Originally Posted by svartnik

It is wonderful that we speak English
It is difficult that we speak English

which is incorrect grammar, IYO? --> That is exactly what I want to know and is the reason why I posted the thread. What I can tell right now is "It is difficult (for us) to speak English. " and "It is wonderful (for us) to speak English" are both correct. No more.

(English is not physics.) --> I agree, but there might be a rule that I missed or didn't grasp. If there is, I want to know. I think it's worth a try.

This is how the language works and that is that

I know what your point is but I'm sorry that I don't agree.

[svartnik]

What is it that you do not go along with?

[svartnik]

"That is exactly what I want to know and is the reason why I posted the thread. What I can tell right now is "It is difficult (for us) to speak English. " and "It is wonderful (for us) to speak English" are both correct. No more."

But your initial question was something else.
difficult to follow you.
Semantics is the reason

[siruss]

I've explored this question through all of my grammar books and dictionaries.
I think I get the picture now.
Thank you for your attention and participation.