Quote:
Originally Posted by Casiopea Yes and no.  The phrase main verb can be interpreted in two ways, i) Grammatical term. The present participle playing is formed by adding - ing to the main verb; e.g., play + ing. ii) Principal. The auxiliary verb am agrees with the subject in person and number, which makes it the main, or rather, principal verb in terms of tense and inflection.
Sorry for the confusion.
All the best.  |
Hi,
It still confuses me a bit, but I think I understand what you're saying. Mind if try to rephrase it and see if I'm right?
user_gary asked whether in "I am playing football," "playing" is a non-finite verb.
I read your reply as follows:
1. In "I am playing football," "playing" is not a "non-finite
verb", it's a "non-finite
verb form".
2. "Playing" is not inflected itself (i.e. non-finite in form); instead the auxiliary verb "to be" takes that job.
3. So, technically, while the sentence "I am playing football," does contain a "non-finite verb form", it does not a contain a "non-finite verb", because the main verb, "to play", is inflected according to the rules of the English language for the present continuous tense: with the auxilary verb "to be".
There are two grammatical points of confusion here:
A) Morphology: the main-verb in this sentence, in it's uninflected form, is "to play". Since "playing" is a morphological alteration of the infinitive form (compare terminology: in-finit-ive vs. non-finit-e), people usually call "playing" the main verb.
B) Syntax: This follows from the above. "Playing" is not the complete verb in the sentence "I am playing football"; "am playing" is. In English certain tense/aspect/voice/mood constructions are formed using an "auxilary verb + participle construction" (periphrastic constructions). I'm not aware of a word for a "complete verb" that is inflected periphrastically rather than morphologically. Internally, "am" is usually called the "auxilary/helping word", and "playing" the main verb. This is relational terminology that places semantics over syntactic function. If you're talking about inflection, however, it's quite reasonable to reverse the usage, since the inflection is taken care of by "am". Or, differently put, what the verb means is secondary, if you're trying to determine what "part-verb" in the "tense construction" is (non-)finite in form.
In summary: I think the point is that, in general, the term "non-finite verb" is reserved for those cases where a clause contains only "non-finite verb forms" - i.e. a non-finite clause:
"Having eaten breakfast, I'm no longer hungry."
non-finite verb forms: 2 (having, eaten)
finite verb forms: 1 ('m)
non-finite verbs: 1 (having eaten)
finite verbs: 1 ('m)
main verbs: 2 (eaten, 'm)
auxilary verbs: 1 (having)
(lexical) main verbs: 2 (eat [realised by non-finite "having eaten"], be [realised as 'm])
So, am I on the right track?