If I had played better in the second round, I would be playing in the third round by now.
I think here `playing' is gerund and this sentence is first conditional statement.
Am I right?
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If I had played better in the second round, I would be playing in the third round by now.
I think here `playing' is gerund and this sentence is first conditional statement.
Am I right?
Gerund and present participle share the same form, that is, verb+ing. The main difference between gerund and present participle isQuote:
Originally Posted by user_gary
Gerund functions as a noun, whereas present participle functions either as part of verb or as an adjective. So:
In "Reading should be done in the room", Reading is a gerund used as
subject;
In "I like reading", reading is a gerund used as object;
In "I look forward to reading your book", reading is a gerund used as object to the preposition "to"; but
In "I am reading your book", reading is a present participle used as part of predicate;
In "He stays in the room, reading his book", reading is a present participle;
In short, gerund acts more like a noun, whereas present participle acts more like a verb or adjective. So:
In "a sleeping man", sleeping is a present participle, as the action of sleeping is from the man, that is, the man is sleeping; but
In "Sleeping car", sleeping is a gerund, as the action of sleeping is not from the car, that is, the car is not sleeping, but the people in the car sleeping.
So in your sentence, "playing" is a present participle.
Hope this helps.
Thank you Ian.
Could you tell me which forms of conditional statement is it?
first conditional or second or third?
I DON'T EVEN KNOW WHAT THAT MEANS, AS I DON'T USE THE TERMS.Quote:
Originally Posted by user_gary
yOU MAY WANT TO POST THE QUESTION AGAIN TO SEE IF SOMEONE CAN ANSWER THIS QUESTION.
HiQuote:
Originally Posted by user_gary
It`s a mixed type conditional clause:
If I had played better in the second round, I would be playing in the third round now[ by is not necessary here]- mixed type : III + II
If you add "by" , the meaning of the sentence canges : If I played better in the second round, I would have been playing better by now - 3rd type if clause
Thank you.Quote:
Originally Posted by teia_petrescu
I think,
In this sentence (
If I had played better in the second round, I would be playing in the third round now.)
The word `playing' must be gerund. Otherwise, it wouldn't satisfy the mixed conditional rules. Because I have learned that mixed conditionals may be (either -- combination of second and third or third and second).
But in the above sentence, the world `playing' appears odd because no other conditionals have this form.
Could you help me on this?
HiQuote:
Originally Posted by user_gary
Would be playing - future in the past continuous tense
This tense is used in
1. conditional sentences {type II and mixed conditionals}
e.g. I I had studied a little harder in college I wouldn`t be sweeping the streets now.
If you gave her your phone number she`d be calling you days and nights.
2. In Reported Speech and as a past equivalent of the future continuous tense
e.g. "I`ll be talking to Mary soon," he said
He said he would be talking to Marry soon.
The bodyguards were afraid that the foreign reporters would be taking pictures from a close distance.
"Playing" is a present participle.
Here, "would be playing" expresses a present regret.
If I had played better in the second round....... I would be playing now [ but I am not playing because the condition in the conditional clause was not fulfilled]
Regards