John smith is forecasting a $1 billion profit for the company,after losses totalling $2 billion since 2000.
in the sentence,it's a loss to whom?
john smith or the company??i am confused.
besides,does the sentence mean "...after "subject" has lost $2 billion in total since 2000?if so,why uses "losses"?
The people who have lost money are the investors. The word "losses" probably refers to more than one year in which money was lost.
By mengta in forum Ask a Teacher
Last Post: 15-Apr-2004, 09:20
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