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  #11 (permalink)  
Old 11-May-2004, 06:52
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"This is the program that I am going to take at Uvic unless i change my mind." <--correct used of ed? and what does this sentence mean?

"This is the program that I am going to take at Uvic unless i changed my mind." <--correct used of ed? and what does this sentence mean?


"I will not need anything published in the bulletin." <---is "published" used correctly? what does the sentence mean?

"I will not need anything publish in the bulletin." <---is "publish" used correctly? what does the sentence mean?

"I will need that publish."
"I will need that published."
what is the diference between the two in meaing?
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Old 11-May-2004, 10:04
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"This is the program that I am going to take at Uvic unless i change my mind." <--correct used of ed? and what does this sentence mean? It means that the person has chosen a course, but accepts the possibility that they may wish to choose another. In other words, they are not 1000% sure that this is the ideal course for them.

"This is the program that I am going to take at Uvic unless i changed my mind." Incorrect

"I will not need anything published in the bulletin." <---is "published" used correctly? what does the sentence mean? Correct- it means 'that is published'

"I will not need anything publish in the bulletin." Incorrect

"I will need that publish." Incorrect
"I will need that published." = 'to be published'
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Old 11-May-2004, 23:10
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"This is the program that I am going to take at Uvic unless i changed my mind." <--why is changed wrong?, why isn't it a "to be" form?


"I will need that published." = 'to be published' <---how is it a "to be" form? Is it like, "I need him killed immediately." ?[/b]
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Old 11-May-2004, 23:38
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"This is the program that I am going to take at Uvic unless i changed my mind." <--why is changed wrong?, why isn't it a "to be" form?

The 'to be'form is a passive- you change your own mind- so it's active and the past tense, which is what it is, doesn't work. It makes no sense to say 'my mind needs to be changed'.

"I will need that published." = 'to be published' <---how is it a "to be" form? Is it like, "I need him killed immediately." ?[/b] Yes.

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Old 11-May-2004, 23:41
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jack
"This is the program that I am going to take at Uvic unless i changed my mind." <--why is changed wrong?, why isn't it a "to be" form?


"I will need that published." = 'to be published' <---how is it a "to be" form? Is it like, "I need him killed immediately." ?[/b]
The tenses in the first sentence are present tense ("am going to take" = present with a future meaning). The verb "changed" is in the past tense. That doesn't make sense. If one has already "changed" one's mind, then the present and future meanings no longer make sense. It should be:

This is the program that I am going to take at Uvic unless I change my mind.

The verb "need" takes an infinitive or a gerund as a complement:

The car needs to be washed.
The car needs washing.

When need has a noun or pronoun as its direct object, then the object can be followed by a participle (used as an adjective) or a passive infinitive "to be + participle).

I need him killed. I need him to be killed.
I need it published. I need it to be published.
I need it working. I need it to be working.
I need him tending bar. I need him to be tending bar.
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Old 13-May-2004, 23:43
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"Why couldn't you shoot him?" <--correct? why?
"Why couldn't you shot him?" <--incorrect? why?
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Old 14-May-2004, 00:27
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jack
"Why couldn't you shoot him?" <--correct? why?
"Why couldn't you shot him?" <--incorrect? why?
"Shot" is incorrect because we use the base/infinitive form after auxiliary verbs, such as "could". :wink:
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Old 21-May-2004, 21:17
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"My signal srength is rather messed up." <--correct? why?
"My signal srength is rather mess up." <--incorrect? why

"The time is messed up." <---right? why?
"The time is mess up." <--incorrect? why?

"Let me get a clear shoot of him." <--correct? why?
"Let me get a clear shot of him." <--incorrect? why?



"I was supposed to woke up at 8. <---why can't i use woke? i am talking about a past event?
I was supposed to wake up at 8. <---why is wake correct?


In that construction "wake" is an infinitive. As such, it has no past tense form."

Sorry, i still don't really get this. Why is it correct to use wake and incorrect to use woke?" I am taking past tense so why can't i use woke? Why use wake when i am talking past tense?






"Bill is killed." <--why is it incorrect if i use "kill"?
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Old 21-May-2004, 22:01
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The first two are right- you use the past participle because they are passive constructions, using be + past participle. The third should be 'shot' which is the noun referring to the act of firing a gun, rather than 'shoot', which, as a noun, means to get together to fire guns at birds or something all day.

After 'to' the verb doesn't change:

I like to wake up late.
I like to wake up late.

The first verb shows the tesne. Infinitives don't have a past form.
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Old 21-May-2004, 23:02
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"Let me get a clear shoot of him."
"Let me get a clear shot of him."
Can you explain to me again about what is the difference in meaning between the two?
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