But on the surface they are the same having the "It...to..." structure, aren't they?Quote:
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
How do you tell the difference even though it looks like the same...
Confusing...
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But on the surface they are the same having the "It...to..." structure, aren't they?Quote:
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
How do you tell the difference even though it looks like the same...
Confusing...
It can be very confusing to learners. Native speakers can tell because of the way the words attach to each other. In your mother's day example, the infinitive naturally attaches to instinct, so the reader doesn't read it as a delayed subject. :wink:Quote:
Originally Posted by Taka
Isn't it also natural, and haven't you seen in reality, that infinitives attach to "skill" and "art"?Quote:
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
Yes, but attach in a different way in this case. The linking verb after "it" sets up an equivalency between "skill/art" and the infinitives.Quote:
Originally Posted by Taka
It is a skill to X = To X is a skill
It is an art to Y = To Y is an art
So, if the author clearly stated "Memory/That is a skill to X", "Memory/That is an art to Y", then the infinitives link to "a skill", "an art". But when "it"s are used as subjects, then the infinitives don't. Right?Quote:
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
Isn't there any formula to differentiate "It is (a noun) to X" = "(It =a pronoun) is [(a noun)+ (to X)]" from "It is (a noun) to X"="To X is (a noun)"?
[quote="Taka"]Quote:
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
Yes, if memory were followed by a relative clause containing "skill to possess", the infinitive would attach to "skill".Quote:
So, if the author clearly stated "Memory/That is a skill to X", "Memory/That is an art to Y", then the infinitives link to "a skill", "an art". But when "it"s are used as subjects, then the infinitives don't. Right?
I'm not sure about the second part. It sounds like too broad a rule. A better rule is that infinitives used as nouns can be delayed subjects, but infinitives used as modifiers cannot be delayed subjects.
Not with a noun infinitive (that I can think of). That would have two nouns after a linking verb and a pronoun that is taking the subject spot.Quote:
Isn't there any case where "It is (a noun) to X" is "(It =a pronoun) is [(a noun)+ (to X)]"?
One can have [it (pronoun)] is [noun] [infinitive (modifier)].
Moby Dick. It is a book to read.
Sorry,Mike. While you were responding to me, I edited the last part of my last message.
Any comments on this one?:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Taka
Moby Dick...yeah. English is certainly a big white monster whale which I have to confront forever...
But at least, here I have good comrades like you, Mike, and I'm happy with that.
I'm not sure I understand that one.Quote:
Originally Posted by Taka
First we have to differentiate the two "it"s, because they are both called pronouns. For now let's call one It (DS) (delayed subject) and the other It (PN) (pronoun), with the latter referring to something outside the sentence.
[It (PN)] is [noun] [infinitive - modifier] would be the Moby Dick formula, with the infinitive acting as a modifier.
[It (DS] is [noun] [infinitive - noun] would be "It is a good thing to be rich." That tuens to "To be rich" is a good thing.
I can't think of an example of:
[It (PN) is [noun] [infinitive] where the infinitive is a noun.
:oops:Quote:
Moby Dick...yeah. English is certainly a big white monster whale which I have to confront forever...
But at least, here I have good comrades like you, Mike, and I'm happy with that.
I acn tell by the depth of your questions that you are doing very well with English. Most native speakers wouldn't even be able to ask what you ask. :wink:
OK. In short, on the surface they look the same and you cannot tell the difference. But they ARE semantically different so I have to be careful with the meaning in each sentence. Carefulness is the key to the differentiation. Right?Quote:
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
Besides paying attention to the meaning, I think your "infinitives-used-as-modifiers-cannot-be-delayed subjects" rule is also useful. I guess the problem in the "memory" example was that it seemed to me that both DS and PS interpretation was possible. In addition to that, my academic background of psychology deeply affected my interpretation; I learned in my cognitive psychology class that memory is an art not only to remember but also to forget.
Anyway, now I understand that the "it"s are in this case preparatory.
Thank you very very much, Mike. I really appreciate your help. I mean, really (I guess you are a very busy man as a veterinarian. Thanks for spareing your precious time).
If I were not a teacher of English here in Japan, I wouldn't bother myself ( and you teachers) this much!Quote:
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
But still, English is fun.
You're very welcome. I enjoy helping people understand English. :DQuote:
Originally Posted by Taka
It is, indeed. :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol:Quote:
If I were not a teacher of English here in Japan, I wouldn't bother myself ( and you teachers) this much!Quote:
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
But still, English is fun.