Hey,
this is the given sentence:
Whatever she decides, we cannot change our plans.
Is the subjunctive:
Whatever she decide, we cannot change our plans.
Whatever she decides, we cannot change our plans.
or is both possible as subjunctive.
thank you for your help !!!
Bye
Blindi
The subjunctive occurs mainly in very formal styles, involving the base form of the verb, without any inflections (like the '-s' on third person singular):
I insist that she do that herself.
The subjunctive form of the verb be may occur as the base form be or as hypothetical were (for all persons):
Far be it from me to tell you what to do.
If I were a teacher I would be really happy.
However, in your sentences I cannot see any reason for using the subjunctive mood, I'm afraid.![]()
engee30
I think you mean, 'Far be it for me to tell you what to do.'
Am I right?
No, I think you are wrong. The fixed phrase is 'Far be it for someone to do something.'
2006 (by the way, my LMS number, the number that I use in a warehouse I work in, is 2004) I am absolutely sure that I am right - I've just rechecked my source of information, and it still says the same thing - it's Far be it from..., not Far be it for....
Making Sense of Grammar
David Crystal
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Well, it's probably another difference between European English and North American English. "for“ is said where I am.
Is that so?Well, since I am not a native speaker of English, I can't tell you whether the version that I provided is the only version that is acceptable here, in Europe.
Apart from the book where I found the information on the issue, I looked the phrase up in two dictionaries - they said the same, the correct preposition was from.
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Hi
Engee is right.
The standard English phrase is : Far be it from...
Here is the explanation:far be it for me
Regards
Last edited by Teia; 28-Jun-2007 at 13:39.