When "To" is used as a preposition rather than an infinitive? - Page 2

Casiopea · #11 (**permalink**) 26-Jun-2007, 14:18

engee30, they are beautiful examples.

engee30 · #12 (**permalink**) 26-Jun-2007, 14:24

Quote:

Originally Posted by Casiopea

engee30, they are beautiful examples.

Yes, I like the two as well.

Thanks.

CHOMAT · #13 (**permalink**) 26-Jun-2007, 20:44

degemer mat Niall
lavaromp Saoz(on)(The English) e Brezhoneg ha Bro-Saoz for England Ma gouies an dra-se.
Laouen da degouezehout an Skosad.
Love and Miss Scotland so much

albertino · #14 (**permalink**) 27-Jun-2007, 02:04

In the examples given by engee30, it seems to me that the use of "towards" gives us the meaning of "towards an aim/something", whereas the use of "to" is "in order to do something".

In applying your advice to the following sentences i read from a newspaper this morning:
"Wen denied the swindling charges but pleaded guilty to entering the mainland illegally by using a Hong Kong home return permit under the name Wen Ruiping." (if "towards" something, it makes sense, whereas "in order to", it doesn't. )

"And when Hong Kong people did declaim - against planned security legislation or in favour of democracy - the response from our administration, again with strong prompts from Beijing, was to give priority to getting the economy moving ahead, in the hope that people would then forget their gripes." ("towards" something rather than "in order to" seems more logical.)

Am I right?
Thanks to all.

BTW, Casiopea, could you tell me what the "verb's subcategorization frame" means?
Thank you.

Casiopea · #15 (**permalink**) 27-Jun-2007, 11:00

Try here, subcategorization frame: Information from Answers.com.

engee30 · #16 (**permalink**) 27-Jun-2007, 14:59

Quote:

Originally Posted by Niall Beag

I think that's completely different.

Why?

Is this the way to Amarillo?
Do you know the way to San José?

The noun "way" habitually takes a direction (after all, it's just an Anglo-Saxon word for a road, and is still used that way in parts of Scotland), but "room" doesn't.

Niall, my example sentences have nothing to do with the concrete term of road; instead, they represent a usage of the abstract term of method; that's what I think is completely different.

Casiopea · #17 (**permalink**) 27-Jun-2007, 15:05

Quote:

Originally Posted by Niall Beag

I think that's completely different.

It is.

I believe, however, the purpose of engee30's contribution was to show that these structures to + ing and to + bare infinitive can indeed occur in similar enviornments--not the same environments, of course, but similar ones. The point being, to can be ambiguous.

As for the phrase enough room to(wards) establishing, it works, it's possible, but given the context, its not the best choice.

We all seem to agree to establish is the phrase that works best in that particular context.

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