#1  
Old 05-Sep-2007, 07:18
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Default Makes it hard for him to speak...

Dear teachers,

I have a question.

1) A speech disorder makes it hard for him to speak.

2) A speech disorder makes it hard him speaking.

3) A speech disorder makes it hard his speaking.

4) A speech disorder makes him speaking hard.

5) A speech disorder makes his speaking hard.

Are 2), 3), 4), and 5) grammatically correct?

And do they have the same meaning with 1)?

If not, please tell me why.

Thank you in advance.
Sincerely.
  #2  
Old 05-Sep-2007, 14:03
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Default Re: Makes it hard for him to speak...

I would only use 1.
  #3  
Old 06-Sep-2007, 05:00
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Default Re: Makes it hard for him to speak...

Thank you for the answer.

But could you please explain why you would only use 1)?


And I have another question

"I think it dangerous her going there alone at night."

Is this sentence grammatically correct and proper to use?
If it is not, how can I rephrase it?

Thank you in advance.
  #4  
Old 06-Sep-2007, 22:47
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Default Re: Makes it hard for him to speak...

Quote:
Originally Posted by norae99 View Post
Thank you for the answer.

But could you please explain why you would only use 1)?


And I have another question

"I think it dangerous her going there alone at night."

Is this sentence grammatically correct and proper to use?
If it is not, how can I rephrase it?

Thank you in advance.
I would rephrase it as "I think her going there alone at night is dangerous". It is somewhat informal usage.

Formally "I think it is dangerous for her to go there alone at night".
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