Why 'did' at the end of a sentence?

Hi,

'Suzy said she might phone today, but I don´t think she did'

Could anyone explain why we use 'did' at the end of the second clause and not do?

If I write it another way:

'Suzy said she might phone today, but I don´t think she has'

both sentences have the same meaning, but the tenses are different - 'did' being past and 'has' being present.

I need to explain this to a student, but really don´t understand myself, so any clues would be really appreciated.

Thanks.
Kerrie

[Soup]

Past time is over
Suzy said she might phone today, but I don't think she did / did phone / phoned today.

It's 6 p.m. now and our offices are closed for the day. Suzy said she might call today, but I don't think she did / did call / called.



Present time is not over
Suzy said she might phone today, but I don't think she has yet / has phoned yet today.

It's 10 a.m. now and our offices close at 6 p.m. Suzy said she might call today, but I don't think she has yet / has called yet.

[Naamplao]

Originally Posted by Unregistered

Hi,

'Suzy said she might phone today, but I don´t think she did'

Could anyone explain why we use 'did' at the end of the second clause and not do?

If I write it another way:

The sentence is correct speaking English.

In speaking English parts of a clause may be missing if they are obvious to the listener.

"Suzy said she might phone today, but I don´t think she did (phone)."

however, there is also more information that can be gained from this sentence. The fact that the person used the past tense in the sentence means that the person said the sentence near the end of the day. The day is almost over and the speaker is expressing the fact that someone probably didn't phone.

If the sentence was...

"Suzy said she might phone today, but I don´t think she will (phone)."

Here the future tense is used so the time of day is at the beginning of the day. The speaker is expressing doubt that the person will do the action before the day has ended.

[engee30]

Originally Posted by Naamplao

...
If the sentence was...

"Suzy said she might phone today, but I don´t think she will (phone)."

Here the future tense is used so the time of day is at the beginning of the day. The speaker is expressing doubt that the person will do the action before the day has ended.

A very good remark on the issue.

I wouldn't, however, say that '...the future tense is used so the time of day is at the beginning of the day...'. It's more to do with the possible action after somebody's saying to do something (in our case Suzy's saying that she might phone).

[Naamplao]

Originally Posted by engee30

A very good remark on the issue.

I wouldn't, however, say that '...the future tense is used so the time of day is at the beginning of the day...'. It's more to do with the possible action after somebody's saying to do something (in our case Suzy's saying that she might phone).

I stand corrected...you are right...It does not necessarily mean the beginning of the day but it probably is not at the end of the day either since then the past tense would apply. The use of "will" implies that there is still time for her to phone in spite of one's doubt that Suzy will do it.

[Soup]

Originally Posted by Naamplao

The use of "will" implies that there is still time for her to phone in spite of one's doubt that Suzy will do it.

Good insight, and the same holds true for present perfect has.

[Kerrie Langhage]

Thank you. That was really helpful.