Dear teachers,
Please read the following groups of sentences. Could you please kindly explain if there are different meaning among them?
1. a. Mary has a good job.
b. Mary is having a good job.
2. a. There was nothing to be had.
b. There was nothing to be obtained.
3. a. He is a man who has a lot of money.
b. He is a man having a lot of money.
c. He is a man with a lot of money.
I am looking forward to hearing from you.
Thank you in advance.
Jiang
Hi, Jiang
It is a good question. But I am not an expert.![]()
- a. He is a man who has a lot of money.
b. He is a man having a lot of money.
c. He is a man with a lot of money.
For me, (a) and (c) state a fact. And (b), some emotion or some feelings gets involved. Hm, need some experts.![]()
I do not see any difference in meaning between them. The difference they have is in their grammatic structure.Originally Posted by blacknomi
Hi,
When the verb 'to have' is used to express possession it should be used in the simple present tense form (as it is done in 1a and 3a), therefore examples 1b and 3b are not used properly.
As for 2a and 2b, there is no difference in meaning, although I would use 2a rather than 2b. Both verbs have essentially the same meaning: to acquire, to come into possession.
3c means the same as 3a.
I hope it helps,
Iza
Originally Posted by jiang
3c would make me think that the man might just withdraw money from a bank and he carried some with him. :wink:Originally Posted by izabela
1 a GoodOriginally Posted by jiang
1 b Not good, if it refers to her employment.
2 Both are OK, but b is a bit odd.
3 a and c are OK.
b is unusual. I would avoid that one.
Thank you for your reply.
OK. Let's wait for the teachers' answers.
Jiang
Originally Posted by blacknomi
Thank you very much for your repy. Let's wait for more answers.
Jiang
Originally Posted by izabela
Thank you very much for your explanation. Now I see.
Jiang
Originally Posted by MikeNewYork
You're welcome. :wink:Originally Posted by jiang