Why was the future perfect used instead of the simple future tense?

Dear Friends,

I came across a sentence in the BBC. While describing Mervyn's king's (the governor of the Bank of England) profile it says:

'In June 2007 he was outvoted in a 5-4 vote in favour of keeping rates unchanged, but Professor Nickell says the governor will have had no trouble dealing with that.'

I didn't understand why it used the future perfect tense (will have had) instead of the simple future tense (will hvae).

Could someone please help me in appreciating the use of "will have had" here?

Regards,
Sabya

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Originally Posted by sabyakgp

Dear Friends,

I came across a sentence in the BBC. While describing Mervyn's king's (the governor of the Bank of England) profile it says:

'In June 2007 he was outvoted in a 5-4 vote in favour of keeping rates unchanged, but Professor Nickell says the governor will have had no trouble dealing with that.'

I didn't understand why it used the future perfect tense (will have had) instead of the simple future tense (will hvae).

Could someone please help me in appreciating the use of "will have had" here?

Regards,
Sabya

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I cannot defend it. I think "will have" is better too.

Thanks Naamplao,
I would like to know what is the rationale behind using the future perfect tense here.

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Originally Posted by sabyakgp

Thanks Naamplao,
I would like to know what is the rationale behind using the future perfect tense here.

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I think it is a mistake. You are correct in my opinion, "will have" is much better. It makes no sense to use "will have had" in this sentence.

It sugests that the Professor is making an assumption about the past (June). BTW, we do use the future perfect in British English a bit differently from American English.

Thanks Tdol and Naamplao.

Tdol said:

"It sugests that the Professor is making an assumption about the past (June)."

In my humble opinion, If this had been the case they should have used "would have had" instead of "will have had". Please correct me if I am wrong.

I have read in "Practical English Usage" by Michael Swan that "Will have" can be used in the past aspect to denote certainty.

For example:

Dear Sir,
You will have received our offer...

The writer - while describing King's profile - might have asserted that he will have had no trouble dealing with that.

Tdol:
As you said that the usage of the future perfect in British English is a bit different from that of American English. I would be keen to know as to how it differs.

Could you please elaborate the differences?

Best Regards,
Sabya

Quote:

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Originally Posted by sabyakgp

'...but Professor Nickell says the governor will have had no trouble dealing with that.'

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There's no need to use 'would have had' since the reported clause is introduced by a simple present form of the verb, says. ;-)

Quote:

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Originally Posted by sabyakgp

...
I have read in "Practical English Usage" by Michael Swan that "Will have" can be used in the past aspect to denote certainty.

For example:

Dear Sir,
You will have received our offer...
...

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To denote certainty is somewhat similar in meaning to an assumption about something. ;-)

Quote:

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Originally Posted by sabyakgp

Dear Friends,

I came across a sentence in the BBC. While describing Mervyn's king's (the governor of the Bank of England) profile it says:

'In June 2007 he was outvoted in a 5-4 vote in favour of keeping rates unchanged, but Professor Nickell says the governor will have had no trouble dealing with that.'

I didn't understand why it used the future perfect tense (will have had) instead of the simple future tense (will have).

Could someone please help me in appreciating the use of "will have had" here?

Regards,
Sabya

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BBC news follows the rules of the sequence of tenses correctly :

'In June 2007 he was outvoted in a 5-4 vote in favour of keeping rates unchanged, but Professor Nickell says the governor will have had no trouble dealing with that.'
As Tdol has already said, Professor Nickell makes an assumption referring to the past.
The Future Perfect expresses the idea that something will occur before another action in the future. It can also show that something will happen before a specific time in the future.
And I agree with Engee :There's no need to use 'would have had' since the reported clause is introduced by a simple present form of the verb, says.

If you want to use would have had, then you have to change the verb of the main clause says into said.