Quote:
Originally Posted by sabyakgp Dear Friends,
I came across a sentence in the BBC. While describing Mervyn's king's (the governor of the Bank of England) profile it says:
'In June 2007 he was outvoted in a 5-4 vote in favour of keeping rates unchanged, but Professor Nickell says the governor will have had no trouble dealing with that.'
I didn't understand why it used the future perfect tense (will have had) instead of the simple future tense (will have).
Could someone please help me in appreciating the use of "will have had" here?
Regards,
Sabya |
BBC news follows the rules of the sequence of tenses correctly :
'In June 2007 he was outvoted in a 5-4 vote in favour of keeping rates unchanged, but Professor Nickell
says the governor
will have had no trouble dealing with that.'
As Tdol has already said, Professor Nickell makes an assumption referring to the past.
The Future Perfect expresses the idea that something will occur before
another action in the future. It can also show that something will happen
before a specific time in the future.
And I agree with Engee :
There's no need to use 'would have had' since the reported clause is introduced by a simple present form of the verb, says.
If you want to use
would have had, then you have to change the verb of the main clause
says into
said.