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Old 19-Oct-2007, 15:07
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Default I could never have imagined in my dreams.

It was a feast that I could never have imagined even in my dreams.
It was a feast that I could never imagine even in my dreams.


Do both of the above two samples sound right and make sense? If yes, are there any slight difference in meanings? Thanks.
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Old 19-Oct-2007, 18:47
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Default Re: I could never have imagined in my dreams.

It was a feast that I could never have imagined even in my dreams since I was a kid.

It was a feast that I could never imagine even in my dreams when I was young.
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Old 19-Oct-2007, 19:24
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Default Re: I could never have imagined in my dreams.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Buddhaheart View Post
It was a feast that I could never have imagined even in my dreams since I was a kid.

It was a feast that I could never imagine even in my dreams when I was young.

I agree with Buddaheart's additions and the context they create but just the sentences minus additions, I hear/see:

It was a feast that I could never have imagined even in my dreams: The use of the modal perfect suggests that until I saw such a feast (some time in the past), it was beyond my imagination (before I saw it, but now it is a part of my reality) I prefer this sentence for its clarity.

It was a feast that I could never imagine even in my dreams: Although I think that this sentence would be used frequently and that the tenses are enough for comprehension (one could easily assume it has the same meaning as the first), it does suggest that I still am unable to imagine such a feast, which is a bit weird because now you have seen it!
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