1 is correct; 2 and 3 are wrong.Originally Posted by FW
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Are these sentences correct:
1-I would hate him to win.
2-I would hate for him to win.
3-I would hate it for him to win.
1 is correct; 2 and 3 are wrong.Originally Posted by FW
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Thank you.
I am sure what you say applies to British English but I just wonder if an American would give the same answer.
I think Americans might well feel differently- I have heard 'hate for him'
I cannot, of course, speak for all Americans, but my advice is the opposite of Gwen's.Originally Posted by FW
1. No.
2. Yes.
3. Yes.
It is apparent (tho not certain) that it is an AE/BE difference.
8)
If you say 2 and 3 are correct, I won’t argue with you. (My ears hear differently, that’s all.)
But I can assure you that the construction “hate” + noun + “to” infinitive is perfectly valid. There is nothing wrong with it whatsoever.
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I really think this is a difference between American English and British English.
I saw an excerpt from the new Lars Von Triers film "Dogville" with Nicole Kidman, and if I am not misaken Ms. Kidman says at one point: "I'd hate it for you to think ..." (I know Ms. Kidman is Australian but she has lived in America for a long time and what's more the film takes place in America.) The sentence sounded very strange to me and that's what prompted me to post this question. May-be we can do a poll on this or something?
"I'd hate it for you to think ..." sounds odd to me too! A poll sounds like a good idea. Why not set one up? :D
Red5
Webmaster, UsingEnglish.com
I am only a beginner. One of you people should do it!
Done: http://www.usingenglish.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=646Originally Posted by FW
Red5
Webmaster, UsingEnglish.com