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Old 27-Mar-2008, 17:02
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Default A famous composer is thought to have lived in this house in 1778.

Why was the present perfect tense used in the sentence below? I just don't understand how come that past perfect wasn't used instead (because of the year given).
A famous composer is thought to have lived in this house in 1778.
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Old 27-Mar-2008, 17:29
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Default Re: A famous composer is thought to have lived in this house in 1778.

It is all in the past as far as we are concerned, but if interviewed towards the end of 1788, he would have said, I have been living in this house for most of this year. It is taken from the perspective of the composer (and his neighbours!) back in 1788.
Is the sentence construction you mean:
A famous composer is thought to had lived in this house in 1778. ?
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Old 27-Mar-2008, 20:05
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Default Re: A famous composer is thought to have lived in this house in 1778.

David, thank you for your post but I don't understand what you mean...
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Old 27-Mar-2008, 20:10
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Smile Re: A famous composer is thought to have lived in this house in 1778.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lenka View Post
David, thank you for your post but I don't understand what you mean...
I hope you'll find the post below useful:
http://www.usingenglish.com/forum/206127-post3.html
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Lenka (27-Mar-2008)
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Old 27-Mar-2008, 21:43
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Default Re: A famous composer is thought to have lived in this house in 1778.

Re: A famous composer is thought to have lived in this house in 1778.

"Is thought" means the current opinion of that past event. To have lived refers to the event in the past which is being discussed.
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