Quote:
Originally Posted by heidita Hi Andy, I only said it was unusual because in BE it is usual to use "got" as a participle of get.
Really, in a regular conjugation:
I get a toothache.
I have got a toothache.
I got a toothache.
So the second sentence would normally be interpreted as "I have a toothache" as have got is the same as have. But it would certainly be grammatically correct. |
hi Heidita,
so 1.I have got a toothache=I have gotten a toothache
2.I have got a toothache=I have a toothache
is all that right? if so, it is abit crazy,

how to figure out if a speaker means 1 or 2? How come in a language one sentence has many completely different meanings?
ups.....


