arranged/ was arranged

[vil]

Dear teachers,

There are two sentences which comprise one and the same components.

He arranged that the examination should take place on the 2nd.

It was arranged that the examination should take place on the 2nd.

Whould you be kind enough to tell me whether there is indeed a change in the meaning of the word “arrange” as a result of the change in the structures of the sentences? For example, in the first sentence “arrange” = come to an agreement, and in the second sentence “arrange” = it was decided.

Thank you in advance for your efforts.

Regards.

V.

[bhaisahab]

Dear teachers,

There are two sentences which comprise one and the same components.

He arranged that the examination should take place on the 2nd.

It was arranged that the examination should take place on the 2nd.

Whould you be kind enough to tell me whether there is indeed a change in the meaning of the word “arrange” as a result of the chang in the structures of the sentences? For example, in the first sentence “arrange” = come to an agreement, and in the second sentence “arrange” = it was decided.

Thank you in advance for your efforts.

Regards.

V.

Hi vil,

No, there is no difference in the meaning of the word "arranged" in the two sentences;
He arranged that the examination should take place on the 2nd.
It was arranged (by him)that the examination should take place on the 2nd.

Either way, the examination was arranged.

[vil]

Hi bhaisahab,

Thank you for your definite statement. The mentioned in my post above sentences were interpreted in my Grammar book “Oblique Moods Modal Verbs” (a Russian issue) with two different meaning of the word "arrange". This gave rise to doubt and prompt me to put the present question.

Thank you again for your kindness.

Regards.

V.

[naomimalan]

Dear teachers,

There are two sentences which comprise one and the same components.

He arranged that the examination should take place on the 2nd.

It was arranged that the examination should take place on the 2nd.

Whould you be kind enough to tell me whether there is indeed a change in the meaning of the word “arrange” as a result of the chang in the structures of the sentences? For example, in the first sentence “arrange” = come to an agreement, and in the second sentence “arrange” = it was decided.

Thank you in advance for your efforts.

Regards.

V.

The second sentence is in the passive. One reason why you use the passive is to avoid mentioning the agent (in this case, the person who did the arranging).

You avoid mentioning the agent for any one of a number of reasons:

-because you don't know who the agent is
-because it isn't necessary to say who the agent is
-because it's obvious who the agent is
-because you don't want to disclose the identity of the agent

So in sentence 2, "He" is not necessarily the agent (sorry if I seem to be contradicting you bhaisahab. I hope you won't take it amiss.)

[vil]

Hi naomimalan,

Thank you for your circumstantial explanation. Your statement is very close to my original speculation. There is, in my humble opinion, a subtle difference between “it is for you (he) to decide) and “it was decided by others (not by me, he etc).

I reserve further judgements in order to evade a penalty of someone person which probably have supersensitive, itching ears and cannot stand me and my imperfect, mutilated English.

Regards.

V.