I am writing an essay that is supposed to compare and contrast Fredrich Nietzsche's "Good and Evil Reconsidered" with John Steinbeck's "Grapes of Wrath". I was told by a friend that parallelism was used all over by both authors, but the problem is... I don't understand how to identify it or what it really is. I have done some research online, but I'm still not understanding the concept. So can someone please try and explain it to me?
I'm not sure but perhaps this may help you
In parallelism, mental events and physical events are perfectly coordinated by God; so that when a mental event such as Sally's decision to walk across the room occurs, simultaneously Sally's body heads across the room, in the absence of a direct cause-effect relation between mind and body. Mental and physical events are just perfectly coordinated by God, either in advance (as per Gottfried Leibniz's idea of pre-established harmony) or at the time (as in the Occasionalism of Nicolas Malebranche).
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Otherwise parallelism can be a rhetorical concept.
I think your last suggestion is most likely to be appropriate here: I'm attaching a handout I used in a lesson earlier this week - but the fact that Nietzsche is given as an example makes me less sure.
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