Quote:
Originally Posted by Unregistered Hi,
I have following difficult problem of grammar. Please explain which answer is right with some reasons.
The writer of this sign probably looked up the word 'expose' in the dictionary and thought it was perfect, because its meaning is similar to ____________
a. 'show'
b. that of 'show'
c. 'show'/that of show (botha a. and b. are right) |
I think b is the only possible answer:(i) the pronoun "
it"* seems to be used here instead of "
the word expose"; (ii) (the possessive determiner)"
its" is used here instead of "
of the word expose" (iii)the pronoun "
that" in b. is used here instead of the noun "
meaning". So you have:
The writer of this sign probably looked up the word 'expose' in the dictionary and thought the word expose was perfect, because the meaning of the word expose is similar to the meaning of (the word) 'show'. *The pronoun "it" could possibly stand for "this sign". b. would still be the only correct answer I think: The writer of this sign probably looked up the word 'expose' in the dictionary and thought this sign was perfect, because the meaning of the word 'expose' is similar to the meaning of (the word) 'show'.
(If I hesitate between the two possible choices for "it", it shows that I need to brush up my understanding of Saussure's teaching about signs.)
Incidentally, why do you ask this question? It would be interesting to know. Moreover, do you know what the right answer is?
