"has there" or "there has"

[jctgf]

“There’s been a number of emotions, but at no time has there been any disrespect of anyone in the area.”

hi,
this sentence is from a today's newspaper.
please, I'd like to know if the writer made a mistake when chose to say "has there" instead of "there has".
thanks.

[Barb_D]

It's not a mistake - it's inverted word order.

You must invert after certain phrases, like not only, never, at no time.

You can also invert for style reasons, as you would if you put the location first.
A lone pine tree stood on a distant hill.
On a distant hill stood a lone pine tree.


{not a teacher}

EDIT: Ah, I just found this site. It reminded me that you don't invert when it's a personal pronoun and a location. Down the steps ran the puppy, but Down the steps she ran.

http://www.annies-annex.com/inverted_word_order.htm

[jctgf]

thanks,

is this case it was simply a matter of style, right?

as to an adverb, can I freely choose the position of it in a sentence?

for example, "I barely can speak today" and "I can barely speak today" are both possible in English?

thanks.

[riverkid]

Originally Posted by jctgf

thanks,

is this case it was simply a matter of style, right?

as to an adverb, can I freely choose the position of it in a sentence?

for example, "I barely can speak today" and "I can barely speak today" are both possible in English?

thanks.

The normal neutral position is between the two verbs, JC.

[Barb_D]

Originally Posted by jctgf

thanks,

is this case it was simply a matter of style, right?

Yes and no.
The writer could have chosen to write "...and there has never been any disrespect..."

But when the writer chose to write "at no time..." then the invertion that followed was necessary. If it had read "... at no time there has been..." that would have been incorrect.

Style was the reason for writing "at no time" but grammar then requried the inverted word order.