[Grammar] the present perfect

[GUEST2008]

Hi

I know that the first one is correct:

1. Tell me some of the good things that he has done since you have known him.

How about this one: Tell me some of the good things that he did since you have known him.

Will it be fine with "did" and what will it mean? Will the meaning be different compared to the first sentence?

cheers

[2006]

Originally Posted by GUEST2008

Hi

I know that the first one is correct:

1. Tell me some of the good things that he has done since you have known him.

How about this one: Tell me some of the good things that he did since you have known him.

Will it be fine with "did" and what will it mean? Yes it will, and the meaning is the same. Will the meaning be different compared to the first sentence?

cheers

2006

[GUEST2008]

Hi

I'm not sure, but if I were to guess I would say that:

1. Tell me some of the good things that he has done..... (it might mean to me that he has recently done something, not a long time ago)

2. Tell me some of the good things that he did..... (I would say it means that what he did was pretty long time ago, not recently)

Am I right?

[2006]

Originally Posted by GUEST2008

Hi

I'm not sure, but if I were to guess I would say that:

1. Tell me some of the good things that he has done..... (it might mean to me that he has recently done something, not a long time ago)

2. Tell me some of the good things that he did..... (I would say it means that what he did was pretty long time ago, not recently)

Am I right?

I don't think so.
Don't forget that both sentences say "since you have known him". Even without that phrase, both sentence are talking about the past, and saying that one is the recent past and one is the more distant past is unjustified in my opinion.

Don't always try to find a difference in meaning between simple past and present perfect because there often isn't any difference.
'I (have) received your letter.'

[Uncle M]

Hello.

I'm not a teacher, but would suggest the following:

The words since you have known him imply that you still know him and he's still doing things.

Once you use the words things he did (in the past), implying that he is no longer doing things, you would use knew intead of have known, but replace the word since by when:

...things he did when you knew him

Dave

[David L.]

I (have) received your letter.'
Don't always try to find a difference in meaning between simple past and present perfect because there often isn't any difference.

I think this statement is misleading, 2006. It presupposes that, as in your example, our communications verbal and written consist of isolated sentences, when in fact there is a much wider context in which words are chosen and spoken.
I received your letter. Fact. It arrived. I didn't know you were going to write to me, and now I am replying.

I have received your letter.
The person may write these words in isolation, but in his choice of the present perfect, he is writing from the context and mental framework of:
"I have some very good news. As you know, we have been unable to proceed with your claim for the Vanderbilt inheritance until we had proof of your paternity. I have (now) received a letter from Somerset House with your birth certificate, and so I will immediately lodge..."

I also disagree with:
Tell me some of the good things that he did since you have known him.

Will it be fine with "did" and what will it mean? Yes it will, and the meaning is the same.


'Since' can only be used with perfect tenses :"Tell me some of the good things that he has done since you have known him."

[albertino]

Originally Posted by Dave Mortimer

Hello.

I'm not a teacher, but would suggest the following:

The words since you have known him imply that you still know him and he's still doing things.

Once you use the words things he did (in the past), implying that he is no longer doing things, you would use knew intead of have known, but replace the word since by when:

...things he did when you knew him

Dave

I agree. "Since you have known him" denotes a period of time in between you knew him long time ago and up to the time of speaking. So, "Tell me some of the good things that he has done" (from the time that you knew him up to the moment of speaking) is reasonable and grammatical.
(Not a teacher)

[albertino]

Originally Posted by David L.

I (have) received your letter.'
Don't always try to find a difference in meaning between simple past and present perfect because there often isn't any difference.

I think this statement is misleading, 2006. It presupposes that, as in your example, our communications verbal and written consist of isolated sentences, when in fact there is a much wider context in which words are chosen and spoken.
I received your letter. Fact. It arrived. I didn't know you were going to write to me, and now I am replying.

I have received your letter.
The person may write these words in isolation, but in his choice of the present perfect, he is writing from the context and mental framework of:
"I have some very good news. As you know, we have been unable to proceed with your claim for the Vanderbilt inheritance until we had proof of your paternity. I have (now) received a letter with your birth certificate, and so I will immediately lodge..."

I also have disagree with
Tell me some of the good things that he did since you have known him.

Will it be fine with "did" and what will it mean? Yes it will, and the meaning is the same.


'Since' can only be used with perfect tenses :"Tell me some of the good things that he has done since you have known him."

Well, in fact there are differences in the usage of the past and the perfect tense. If not, why should we have such distinctions?
(Not a teacher)

[2006]

Originally Posted by albertino

Well, in fact there are differences in the usage of the past and the perfect tense. If not, why should we have such distinctions?
(Not a teacher)

I think that's a very questionable thing to say. The fact is that sometimes perfect tense is the only good way to express a meaning, but often it is only one way to express it.

Again, this is one of the differences between British and North American English. More comments later....

[GUEST2008]

Originally Posted by David L.

"I have some very good news. As you know, we have been unable to proceed with your claim for the Vanderbilt inheritance until we had proof of your paternity. I have (now) received a letter from Somerset House with your birth certificate, and so I will immediately lodge..."

So, I understand from it that the present perfect can imply that something has just happened "I have (now) received..." while "I received" may mean that it happened a bit further in the past.