[Grammar] gerund (with or without of) and definite article

[Crokey]

hi mr.p,
thanks again. I think the very fact that one gradates into the other permits a large remit for either form. The possessive form +'s derives from the old english es or esse, but the possessive +of originates from french. Seeing as how french had such a huge english on medieval english, both forms of possessive co-existed in English at the same time, further muddying the line between genetives and gerunds, and verbals with of. i would never have been this obsessed with clear definitions had it not been for my students. I am currently helping to open an english academy in Korea aimed at higher level students looking to study in Seoul University, and, although I am not too picky with terminology, Seoul University are, to the point of hairsplitting. So i have endeavored to sharpen the grammar end of the english stick, before i start beating a dead horse with it! Anyway, it looks as if a concise separation of verbal nouns and gerunds is unattainable, so I will have to explain the areas of overlap.

thanks a million again Mr.P for your advice, im glad i joined this forum

p.s. nice to also see you on englishforums!

[MrPedantic]

I think "overlap" is probably the best policy, gerundwise. It may make more sense to your students in its historical context.

Good luck with the academy!

See you later,

MrP