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Thread: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

  1. #1
    hugsandkisses is offline Member
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    Question What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    I don't know what happend to my 1st post...
    Can you tell me the difference. Please and thank you!

  2. #2
    David L. is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    he's is simply the contraction of he has

    is not : isn't

    Americans (I don't know about Canadians) don't seem to use the contracted forms of he'd and he's in their speech.
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  3. #3
    hugsandkisses is offline Member
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    Exclamation Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    He has = He's?
    He had or would = He'd
    Am I correct?

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    David L. is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    Yes.
    So..............how do we know which it is when the person is speaking or writing?

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    hugsandkisses is offline Member
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    Wink Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    Who knows, eh! We must use our common sense!

  6. #6
    David L. is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    Contractions wouldn't be so popular if understanding their meaning relied on that rare attribute, common sense.

    Note:
    to go : go/goes, went, gone
    He has gone, he had gone : He'd gone when I go there etc (the past participle follows)
    compare
    He would go :He'd go (the infinitive, 'to go', but without the 'to' - not to mention a conditional clause)
    Last edited by David L.; 17-Jul-2008 at 16:18.
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    hugsandkisses is offline Member
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    Talking Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    Oh, ok! Thanks! Nicely explained!

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    Barb_D's Avatar
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    Default Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    Quote Originally Posted by David L. View Post
    Americans (I don't know about Canadians) don't seem to use the contracted forms of he'd and he's in their speech.
    David, am I reading this correctly? You're saying we do NOT use it in speech? I'd say the opposite is true: We rarely used the full forms in speech.
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    David L. is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    I watch reality shows like Judge Judy, and perhaps these give me the wrong impression, but I don't think I've ever heard a he'd.
    But boy, do I hear 'had had' when the simple past was needed; and countless, 'I had went' - not even, 'I'd went' !

  10. #10
    David L. is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: What's the difference between "he has been ill" and "he's been ill".

    I watch reality shows like Judge Judy, and perhaps these give me the wrong impression, but I don't think I've ever heard a he'd.
    But boy, do I hear 'had had' when the simple past was needed - not even He'd had; and countless, 'I had went' - not even 'I'd went' !

    I'm happy (and relieved) to stand corrected on this. I was despairing of the American education system. Perhaps the 'grammar' I hear is not as pandemic as I was fearing.

    (I don't think one can judge by scripted TV shows and movies, since scriptwriters are responsible for what comes out of the actors' mouths; and bad grammar and whatever is taken by the viewer as part of the patios of the person's milieu/lifestyle.)
    Last edited by David L.; 17-Jul-2008 at 19:51.

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