I don't know what happend to my 1st post...
Can you tell me the difference. Please and thank you!![]()
"he has been ill" and "he's been ill".
he's is simply the contraction of he has
is not : isn't
Americans (I don't know about Canadians) don't seem to use the contracted forms of he'd and he's in their speech.
He has = He's?
He had or would = He'd
Am I correct?
Yes.
So..............how do we know which it is when the person is speaking or writing?![]()
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Who knows, eh! We must use our common sense!
Contractions wouldn't be so popular if understanding their meaning relied on that rare attribute, common sense.
Note:
to go : go/goes, went, gone
He has gone, he had gone : He'd gone when I go there etc (the past participle follows)
compare
He would go :He'd go (the infinitive, 'to go', but without the 'to' - not to mention a conditional clause)
Last edited by David L.; 17-Jul-2008 at 16:18.
Oh, ok! Thanks! Nicely explained!![]()
I watch reality shows like Judge Judy, and perhaps these give me the wrong impression, but I don't think I've ever heard a he'd.
But boy, do I hear 'had had' when the simple past was needed; and countless, 'I had went' - not even, 'I'd went' !
I watch reality shows like Judge Judy, and perhaps these give me the wrong impression, but I don't think I've ever heard a he'd.
But boy, do I hear 'had had' when the simple past was needed - not even He'd had; and countless, 'I had went' - not even 'I'd went' !
I'm happy (and relieved) to stand corrected on this. I was despairing of the American education system. Perhaps the 'grammar' I hear is not as pandemic as I was fearing.
(I don't think one can judge by scripted TV shows and movies, since scriptwriters are responsible for what comes out of the actors' mouths; and bad grammar and whatever is taken by the viewer as part of the patios of the person's milieu/lifestyle.)
Last edited by David L.; 17-Jul-2008 at 19:51.