causative?

[naveedk]

get+sth+past participle
get+sth/sb+to infinitive
which one is common in spoken

[gabber]

"get something fixed," and "get him to fix it" are both quite common, grammatical, and acceptable.

[engee30]

"get something fixed," and "get him to fix it" are both quite common, grammatical, and acceptable.

And the difference is that in the first phrase, the doer of getting something fixed could be you or someone else. In the other, it's him (not you) who does the fixing.

[Soup]

And the difference is that in the first phrase, the doer of getting something fixed could be you or someone else. In the other, it's him (not you) who does the fixing.

Actually,

Ex: I have to get my hair done (by someone) one of these days. <Uhm, I'm not doing it>

Ex: I have to get him to do my hair. <Him, specifically, not anyone else.>

[engee30]

Actually,

Ex: I have to get my hair done (by someone) one of these days. <Uhm, I'm not doing it>

Ex: I have to get him to do my hair. <Him, specifically, not anyone else.>

Your example sentence with hair is a typical sample of the causative have.
Have a look at the following:

I need to get this report finished by tomorrow morning.

Does it explicitly say that the doer is someone other than me?

[Soup]

Your example sentence with hair is a typical sample of the causative have.
Have a look at the following:

I need to get this report finished by tomorrow morning.

Does it explicitly say that the doer is someone other than me?

That's not of issue here, but I will address it (Please see the end of this post).

The point, or rather what I should have stated in my post is that there are interpretation other than the ones you provided in post #3. For example,

Ex: I need to get my hair done (by someone) one of these days. <Uhm, I'm not doing it>

Ex: I need to get him to do my hair. <Not just anyone, him.>

In both examples, the would-be-doer "is someone other than the [speaker]."

[engee30]

That's not of issue here, but I will address it (Please see the end of this post).

I think, Soup, that it is of issue. The question was straighforward - which of the two structures is more commonly used in speech? Gabber provided the asker with the two example phrases. And I simply wanted the author of this post to become aware of possible interpretation of the causative have (of which have is sometimes replaced with get).

[Pedroski]

You two are coming up with different interpretations, depending on what other words you choose to put in front of get.

You are both correct. But the original question requires a statistical analysis of usage to be answered definitively. Don't know where to get that!!
I wrote down:
I got my watch fixed.
I am getting my watch fixed
I will get my watch fixed

I got him to repair it.
I am getting him to repair it.
I will get him to repair it.

In every case here, the person who actually did the work was someone other than myself.