Ask or Asked

[Silly One]

I read this in a reliable source, "... you do not even need to have anyone ask you questions."

Can anyone tell me why "ask" is in simple present tense? I thought it would normally would be in the particle or "asked".

Somehow, I sensed it is correctly used but the reason just do not occur to me.

[Surakamy]

I am not a teacher. But I think I can help you.

have + someone+ verb(an infinitive) = "to give someone the responsibility to do something".

[Dawood Usmani]

Originally Posted by Silly One

I read this in a reliable source, "... you do not even need to have anyone ask you questions."

Can anyone tell me why "ask" is in simple present tense? I thought it would normally would be in the particle or "asked".

Somehow, I sensed it is correctly used but the reason just do not occur to me.

Have someone do something = let someone do something or make someone do something.
They all take bare infinitive.
Also: Have someone doing something is possible.

[grapefruit]

I was told when you use 'someone' or 'people', it follows infinitive (without to) but when you use 'something' or 'things', it follows particle.

In summary,
Have + someone + infinitive :ex) Have him ask
Have + something + particle:ex) Have your hair trimmed

If I'm wrong, please, correct me.

[Silly One]

I have to apologize to everyone for my late replay as I have been doing a lot of travelling. So, thanks everyone for all your posts.

Originally Posted by grapefruit

I was told when you use 'someone' or 'people', it follows infinitive (without to) but when you use 'something' or 'things', it follows particle.

In summary,
Have + someone + infinitive :ex) Have him ask
Have + something + particle:ex) Have your hair trimmed

If I'm wrong, please, correct me.

Usually, I come across the latter, ie have + something + participle. For example : Have him asked. From the same reliable source I spoke about in the first post, it wrote, "you have not asked for anything."

In the first post, I brought up the sentence,"to have anyone ask you questions." In both cases the word 'ask' follows a person. So, I don't think what you said is accurate.

[Soup]

I agree with the other posters. The construct to have anyone ask questions is causative:

You need to have someone DO something.
You need not have someone DO something.
You do not need to have someone DO something.
You needn't have someone DO something.

You had someone ask you questions.

[Silly One]

Originally Posted by Soup

I agree with the other posters. The construct to have anyone ask questions is causative:

You need to have someone DO something.
You need not have someone DO something.
You do not need to have someone DO something.
You needn't have someone DO something.

You had someone ask you questions.

Seems to me that way but I could not answer why it is "They have gone home"? Is "have" in the latter case not causative?

[grapefruit]

Originally Posted by Silly One

Seems to me that way but I could not answer why it is "They have gone home"? Is "have" in the latter case not causative?

Hi Sillyone,

I think you are confusing the different functions of the verb 'Have'.
> "They have gone home"? Here 'Have' is used as a present perfect tense.

When you use have + someone(object) + bare infinitive, 'have' is used as causative.

When you look at the English grammar book, it explains well.

Originally Posted by Silly One

Usually, I come across the latter, ie have + something + participle. For example : Have him asked. From the same reliable source I spoke about in the first post, it wrote, "you have not asked for anything."

I'm afraid I think this example is wrong, and it is confusing you. As I said, Something+participle is different from Someone+infinitive - you have used someone with a participle,which is wrong - it should be "have him ask..." (i.e with an infinitive ('ask'))

[Silly One]

Originally Posted by grapefruit

Hi Sillyone,

I think you are confusing the different functions of the verb 'Have'.
> "They have gone home"? Here 'Have' is used as a present perfect tense.

When you use have + someone(object) + bare infinitive, 'have' is used as causative.

When you look at the English grammar book, it explains well.



I'm afraid I think this example is wrong, and it is confusing you. As I said, Something+participle is different from Someone+infinitive - you have used someone with a participle,which is wrong - it should be "have him ask..." (i.e with an infinitive ('ask'))

Thanks to you and everyone, I am beginning to understand. So, is "you have not asked for anything" correct? Is it present perfect?

[Dawood Usmani]

Originally Posted by Silly One

Thanks to you and everyone, I am beginning to understand. So, is "you have not asked for anything" correct? Is it present perfect?

You have not asked for anything. Correct. Yes, it's present perfect.