- 1 Post By 5jj
Why do we use did instead of was and vice versa
In past tense sentences why do we use a form of the verb to 'be' (i.e. was) in some sentences while using 'did' in others?.
Is there a historical reason to this?
E.g. What was England's score yesterday?
What did they score?
My question really is , is there some reason we choose one verb over the other?
Can someone clarify please?
Re: Why do we use did instead of was and vice versa
In the first sentence, the verb is BE, which needs no auxiliary in the formation of questions,
Originally Posted by greystroke
In the second sentence, the verbs is SCORE. Like all full verbs, this needs the auxiliary DO in questions.
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