oppositional theory

[Clark]

As is known oppositional theory was originally formulated as phonological theory. Three main qualitative types of oppositions were established in phonology: privative, gradual, equipollent. Then it was expanded on morphology. How would you classify the opposition of 'he says - he is saying' in terms of this theory. Which opposition type is it? If it's the binary privative type, which of the forms is the strong member?

[Soup]

Clark, isn't oppositional theory just another name for markedness (theory)? If so, then wouldn't he says be less marked morphologically than he is saying?

[Clark]

As far as I understand, the idea is to come up with such a grammatical meaning that would give grounds to mark one of the elements as positive (the one which possesses this meaning) and and the other one as negeative. It seems it's also necessary that this meaning should have morphological expression.

E.g. The meaning of progressiveness

says (-)
is saying (+)

The second element of the opposition is the strong (marked) one. Progressiveness is expressed by a discontinuous morpheme - is ... ing.

It's all such bull***t. I've never liked those 'global' theories.