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  1. vladz
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    #1

    none of the ladies

    I have been having this concern since I started teaching English. I often use singular verb for the pronoun "none" but lately my collegues told me that it is not always singular--the veb should agree to the object of the prepostion. I checked my books and the internet and found out that there are conflicting rules in agreement of "none" to the verb. Could you please give me a clearer explanation on the agreement of "none" to the verb.

    I would appreciate any assistance that you could give.

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    #2

    Re: none of the ladies

    Traditionally, it was followed by a singular, though nowadays I'd say the plural is probably more common. After 'none of' we generally use a plural:

    http://www.bartleby.com/64/C001/038.html


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