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    #1

    why is "have" different from "make"

    why isn't the rule of long vowel applied when pronouncing "have" and applied in the word "make"

  1. Soup's Avatar
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    #2

    Re: why is "have" different from "make"

    Quote Originally Posted by najm View Post
    why isn't the rule of long vowel applied when pronouncing "have" and applied in the word "make"
    The -e on have is the result of a spelling convention: Norman scribes added -e to a word if it ended in [v] (e.g., have, give) to differentiate the sound [v] from the sound [u], because at that time the letters <u> and <v> were used interchangeably to spell both the vowel [u] and the consonant [v].

    Read more here.

  2. bhaisahab's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: why is "have" different from "make"

    Quote Originally Posted by Soup View Post
    The -e on have is the result of a spelling convention: Norman scribes added -e to a word if it ended in [v] (e.g., have, give) to differentiate the sound [v] from the sound [u], because at that time the letters <u> and <v> were used interchangeably to spell both the vowel [u] and the consonant [v].

    Read more here.
    Interesting link Soup, thanks.

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