Of course I know 'done' is the past participle of 'do', but sometimes 'done' is used without 'had' or 'have/has' before it, as in the following example:
I know you done had your share of girls.
(1) Why to use 'done' and in what context?
(2) What does this mean exactly?
Thanks in advance.
Interesting example. 8)
This is bad English, or bad standard English. To me it sounds like ebonics, a dialect which breaks many rules of standard English.
Re: using 'done'
(1) If you are going to use it in such a manner, then I suppose you can use it whenever you feel like it. :wink:
Originally Posted by Anonymous
(2) In the example sentence, done substitutes for have.
While the word is used in the manner you describe, many of us heartily disapprove of such usage. There are speech communities in which such usage is quite acceptable.
In some regions of England, it is fairly common to omit the auxiliary 'have' in present and past perfect aspects. However, many say that this is plain wrong and I know of no exam that would accept it as a valid form. It's a feature of dialects, but few regard it as correct English. My advice would be not to use it.
The example you give is AE and wouldn't be used here in the UK. You will hear sentences like 'I done the work', but it's best not to copy.