In the following sentence:
Landlord agress that Tenant and its guests shall be entitled to use the beach.
I know that "its guests" can modify "Tenant."
Without rewriting the sentence... could it be possible that "its guests" is modifying "Landlord" instead of "Tenant." After all, an antecedent can modify things that come before them, and since "Landlord" comes before the antecedent, it could be possible.
Am I correct? Is there a place where I could look this up?