'I was stolen my wallet' 'My wallet was stolen'

[wotcha]

1. I was stolen my wallet

2. My wallet was stolen.


Are the both correct?

 

[2006]

1. I was stolen my wallet :cross:

2. My wallet was stolen. :tick:

2006

 

[Rover_KE]

You can also say 'I had my wallet stolen'.

Rover

 

[ollieacappella]

You can also say 'I had my wallet stolen'.

Would "My wallet was stolen" be better? I was explaining the causative in the passive voice to some students the other day, and concluded that saying "I had my [object] [past participle]" implied that your permission was given.

For example, "Our house was painted" means that at one point the house was one colour, and at another point after that it was a different colour. Permission was not necessarily given - you may have simply woken up to find your house a different colour! On the other hand, "We had our house painted" means that we asked somebody (i.e. gave them permission) to paint our house, and he/she did.

I've heard "I've had my [object] stolen" before, but, all of a sudden, using this analysis it no longer makes sense!

 

[wotcha]

Would "My wallet was stolen" be better? I was explaining the causative in the passive voice to some students the other day, and concluded that saying "I had my [object] [past participle]" implied that your permission was given.

For example, "Our house was painted" means that at one point the house was one colour, and at another point after that it was a different colour. Permission was not necessarily given - you may have simply woken up to find your house a different colour! On the other hand, "We had our house painted" means that we asked somebody (i.e. gave them permission) to paint our house, and he/she did.

I've heard "I've had my [object] stolen" before, but, all of a sudden, using this analysis it no longer makes sense!

Then.. how about 'I got my wallet stolen?' Does it sound same as 'I had my wallet stolen?' or Does it not make sense?

 

[RonBee]

I would stick with My wallet was stolen. I had my wallet stolen suggests to me that the speaker got somebody to steal his wallet.

 

[ollieacappella]

Then.. how about 'I got my wallet stolen?' Does it sound same as 'I had my wallet stolen?' or Does it not make sense?

Using "got" isn't as common for the causative as "had". I personally try to avoid the verb "to get" at all costs anyway because I think it is overused and it is too hard to translate!

I'm not a teacher, by the way.

 

[kfredson]

Would "My wallet was stolen" be better? I was explaining the causative in the passive voice to some students the other day, and concluded that saying "I had my [object] [past participle]" implied that your permission was given.

For example, "Our house was painted" means that at one point the house was one colour, and at another point after that it was a different colour. Permission was not necessarily given - you may have simply woken up to find your house a different colour! On the other hand, "We had our house painted" means that we asked somebody (i.e. gave them permission) to paint our house, and he/she did.

I've heard "I've had my [object] stolen" before, but, all of a sudden, using this analysis it no longer makes sense!

Yes, it does sound illogical to say, "I had my wallet stolen" in place of "My wallet was stolen." Perhaps it is illogical. Nevertheless, it is a common phrase and is readily understood.
"I knew I shouldn't have gone to that wild nightclub last night and, sure enough, I had my wallet stolen."