1. I was stolen my wallet :cross:
2. My wallet was stolen. :tick:
You can also say 'I had my wallet stolen'.
Would "My wallet was stolen" be better? I was explaining the causative in the passive voice to some students the other day, and concluded that saying "I had my [object] [past participle]" implied that your permission was given.
For example, "Our house was painted" means that at one point the house was one colour, and at another point after that it was a different colour. Permission was not necessarily given - you may have simply woken up to find your house a different colour! On the other hand, "We had our house painted" means that we asked somebody (i.e. gave them permission) to paint our house, and he/she did.
I've heard "I've had my [object] stolen" before, but, all of a sudden, using this analysis it no longer makes sense!
Then.. how about 'I got my wallet stolen?' Does it sound same as 'I had my wallet stolen?' or Does it not make sense?
Would "My wallet was stolen" be better? I was explaining the causative in the passive voice to some students the other day, and concluded that saying "I had my [object] [past participle]" implied that your permission was given.
For example, "Our house was painted" means that at one point the house was one colour, and at another point after that it was a different colour. Permission was not necessarily given - you may have simply woken up to find your house a different colour! On the other hand, "We had our house painted" means that we asked somebody (i.e. gave them permission) to paint our house, and he/she did.
I've heard "I've had my [object] stolen" before, but, all of a sudden, using this analysis it no longer makes sense!