Yesterday, I heard my Professor, a real Aussie, say: "I hope you're all more clearer about that now."
That makes me wonder, isn't "clearer" alone enough? Do native speaks actually say "more" + one-or-two-syllable adjs in spoken language?
And, there is: "He'll be more and more lazy!". Again, that was said by an Australian. Would it be any more correct to say: "He'll be lazier and lazier."? Which way is preferable? Thanks a lot for any explanation.
Not a teacher.
Yes, "more clearer" is redundant. And yes, "lazier" is the proper comparative form of "lazy."
People in real life, for reasons ranging from simple ignorance to the desire to speak more "colorfully," say all kinds of ungrammatical things.