cubezero3
Member
- Joined
- May 6, 2009
- Member Type
- Student or Learner
- Native Language
- Chinese
- Home Country
- China
- Current Location
- China
The question arose, when I read the following two sentences.
https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/128724-make-play.html
https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/128736-taken.html
My understanding is that them is used in the first sentence because the sex of the person in question, i.e., someone else, is not given. The writer of the sentence could have said him or her in stead. He chose to use them to make the sentence simpler. The addition of the word else after someone and something doesn't lead to a plural meaning.
If you flirt, you behave in a way that makes someone else know that you are interested in them.
https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/128724-make-play.html
In other words, if it's taken, someone has already laid claim to it even if they're not using it at that moment.
https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/128736-taken.html
My understanding is that them is used in the first sentence because the sex of the person in question, i.e., someone else, is not given. The writer of the sentence could have said him or her in stead. He chose to use them to make the sentence simpler. The addition of the word else after someone and something doesn't lead to a plural meaning.