long time no see

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TheParser

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Can you give the name of this book? I would very much like to read ti! Pleeeeease!

Mr. Michael Swan's book is Practical English Usage. I think that

many English learners (and native speakers like me) find it very helpful.

He does not use a lot of technical terms. He just tells you how the

language is used.
 

TheParser

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I'd like to read that book. What's the full name of it?

NOT A TEACHER

(1) It is an old book, so I think that it may be very difficult to find.

(2) It was written in 1931 by Professor George O. Curme. It is entitled

A Grammar of the English Language. It consists of two volumes.

It is a masterpiece. He explains the historical background of English

grammar with many examples. It is a "must" for any serious student of

English grammar. Maybe a good library might have copies.
 

ostap77

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NOT A TEACHER

(1) It is an old book, so I think that it may be very difficult to find.

(2) It was written in 1931 by Professor George O. Curme. It is entitled

A Grammar of the English Language. It consists of two volumes.

It is a masterpiece. He explains the historical background of English

grammar with many examples. It is a "must" for any serious student of

English grammar. Maybe a good library might have copies.

I've just downloaded Michael Swan's "Practical English Usage". What page is it on which he explains how to use " Past Perfect Progressive with Present Perfect"?
 

TheParser

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I've just downloaded Michael Swan's "Practical English Usage". What page is it on which he explains how to use " Past Perfect Progressive with Present Perfect"?

NOT A TEACHER

(1) I do not think that we were discussing the past perfect progressive

with the present perfect.

(2) In any case, I have the 1995 Oxford University Press edition.

(3) The index says that sections (not pages) 418 - 420 discuss the use

of the present perfect.
 

e2e4

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Instead of "since I have seen you" we can say

since I met you, since I had a word with you, since I saw you, since we had the meeting etc.

But maybe "since I've seen you" means "since that event".

Who would understand natives!;-):-D
 

Abstract Idea

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Who would understand natives!

I think you mean "native English speakers."

I have been following this thread refraining myself not to reply in order not to disturb or muddle the discussion. But now I feel I must say some words.

We all love the English language, that is a fact. But we know there is a huge difference between prescriptive and descriptive grammar!

There is no such thing as right or wrong in such a simple form. Language is an interesting phenomenon we study - we observe it; we are curious about it. People communicate among themselves using language, there is no a priori "rule" about it. But we, as human beings, try to find out the secrets (that is the "rules") hidden under the language phenomena. Therefore we model language; currently there are many different models at our disposal, some good and some not so good, but none perfect. The "rules" of language are to be discovered and understood by us, not to rule our/their way of speaking telling right from wrong, it is the opposite. If English speakers say something in such and such a way, that is correct by definition; if we don't understand the reasons we should work harder and enhance our models. Our aim is to understand why he speaks that way, not the other way around.

Of course the same is true for any other language besides English.

All is permitted to the natives!

But of course!!
 
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ostap77

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I think you mean "native English speakers."

I have been following this thread refraining myself not to reply in order not to disturb or muddle the discussion. But now I feel I must say some words.

We all love the English language, that is a fact. But we know there is a huge difference between prescriptive and descriptive grammar!

There is no such thing as right or wrong in such a simple form. Language is an interesting phenomena we study - we observe it; we are curious about it. People communicate among themselves using language, there is no a priori "rule" about it. But we, as human beings, try to find out the secrets (that is the "rules") hidden under the language phenomena. Therefore we model language; currently there are many different models at our disposal, some good and some not so good, but none perfect. The "rules" of language are to be discovered and understood by us, not to rule our/their way of speaking telling right from wrong, it is the opposite. If English speakers say something in such and such a way, that is correct by definition; if we don't understand the reasons we should work harder and enhance our models. Our aim is to understand why he speaks that way, not the other way around.

Of course the same is true for any other language besides English.



But of course!!


Here are some grammar rules from one of the TheParser's posts


(3) Here is some more from that grammarian:

It is/has been 4 years since I have studied it. (refers to an action in

the past)

It is/has been 4 years that I have studied it. (the action continues)


What would be the rule when to use Presebt Perfect with since?

Judging from these examples If I say "since I have seen her", it will refer to an action in the past, whereas If I say " that I have seen her", it will refer to the present.

" She's been in New York since I have seen her." (It would mean that all this time she's been living in New Yor since we last met and talked.)

OR

" She's been in New York that I have seen her."( It would mean that all this time she's been living in New York and I keep on seeing her on a regular basis)
 
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bhaisahab

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Here are some grammar rules from one of the TheParser's posts


(3) Here is some more from that grammarian:

It is/has been 4 years since I have studied it. (refers to an action in

the past)

It is/has been 4 years that I have studied it. (the action continues)


What would be the rule when to use Presebt Perfect with since?

Judging from these examples If I say "since I have seen her", it will refer to an action in the past, whereas If I say " that I have seen her", it will refer to the present.

" She's been in New York since I have seen her." (It would mean that all this time she's been living in New Yor since we last met and talked.)

OR

" She's been in New York that I have seen her."( It would mean that all this time she's been living in New York and I keep on seeing her on a regular basis)
"She's been in New York since I have seen her." You have the present perfect in the first part of the sentence, this gives you your time-line, the present perfect is not appropriate in the second part,
"She has (she's) been in New York since I last saw her" this means that since you last saw her she has been in New York continuously, she has been staying there.
"She has been to New York since I last saw her" means that since the last time you saw her she has visited New York, she is no longer there.
 

ostap77

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"She's been in New York since I have seen her." You have the present perfect in the first part of the sentence, this gives you your time-line, the present perfect is not appropriate in the second part,
"She has (she's) been in New York since I last saw her" this means that since you last saw her she has been in New York continuously, she has been staying there.
"She has been to New York since I last saw her" means that since the last time you saw her she has visited New York, she is no longer there.

So we can't use Present Perfect in the second part of the sentence after "since" to state a fact in the past. What about the rules given by TheParser?
 

ostap77

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As I live in Greece, I feel qualified to correct your usage of this Greek word. "Phenomena" is the plural form of "phenomenon".

Any comments from you on my post?
 

Koronas

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Any comments from you on my post?

No, I have no further comments. I can tell you what I say. I can't always tell you why, or give alternatives, or comment on grammatical "rules". I'm a writer, not a teacher.
 

ostap77

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No, I have no further comments. I can tell you what I say. I can't always tell you why, or give alternatives, or comment on grammatical "rules". I'm a writer, not a teacher.

Any comments from other people?
 

e2e4

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/A learner/

It has been a long time since I have seen her.


is an incorrect sentence for me.

The same tense cannot be used twice in the same sentence in order to be the time reference for the other (but the same) tense.

Could be said

It has been a long time since I saw her.

If one want to use the present perfect in the latter part (That the latter part carries either meeting or having-a-word connotations) then the indefinite tense must be used in the first part of the sentence according to logic of the Sequence of Tenses.

Let me try to develop the most liking form for me
Let me look at these forms, that could be correct, first

It is a long time since I haven't been seeing her.

It is a long time that I haven't seen her, since the last time I saw her. ("the last time I saw her" is a bit redundant here)

It is a long time that I haven't seen her, since.


more simpler

It is a long time that I have seen her.

And at length one could maybe say

It is a long time since I have seen her.

I wanna say that I prefer the second last sentence. It means this one below in blue

It is a long time that I've seen her.

I wonder how many people that either learn or speak the language prefer the same sentence.
 

ostap77

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/A learner/

It has been a long time since I have seen her.


is an incorrect sentence for me.

The same tense cannot be used twice in the same sentence in order to be the time reference for the other (but the same) tense.

Could be said

It has been a long time since I saw her.



If one want to use the present perfect in the latter part (That the latter part carries either meeting or having-a-word connotations) then the indefinite tense must be used in the first part of the sentence according to logic of the Sequence of Tenses.

Let me try to develop the most liking form for me
Let me look at these forms, that could be correct, first

It is a long time since I haven't been seeing her.

It is a long time that I haven't seen her, since the last time I saw her. ("the last time I saw her" is a bit redundant here)

It is a long time that I haven't seen her, since.


more simpler

It is a long time that I have seen her.

And at length one could maybe say

It is a long time since I have seen her.

I wanna say that I prefer the second last sentence. It means this one below in blue

It is a long time that I've seen her.

I wonder how many people that either learn or speak the language prefer the same sentence.

Because you haven't "adopted the English language as an official one yet." It was meant for native speakers or anyone else who could enlighten us on this " informal use" issue.
 
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