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  1. #1
    ostap77 is offline Key Member
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    Default to have learned vs had learned

    "She knew her son to have learned German."

    OR

    "She knew her son had learned German."

    OR

    "She knew that her son had learned German."
    Last edited by ostap77; 14-Oct-2010 at 12:46.

  2. #2
    riquecohen's Avatar
    riquecohen is offline VIP Member
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    Default Re: to have learned vs had learned

    Quote Originally Posted by ostap77 View Post
    "She knew her son to have learned German."

    OR

    "She knew her sone had learned German."

    OR

    "She knew that her son had learned German."
    Only the 2nd and 3rd are correct. Watch out for typos.

  3. #3
    ostap77 is offline Key Member
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    Default Re: to have learned vs had learned

    Quote Originally Posted by riquecohen View Post
    Only the 2nd and 3rd are correct. Watch out for typos.
    What would be the problem with the first one?

  4. #4
    ostap77 is offline Key Member
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    Default Re: to have learned vs had learned

    Quote Originally Posted by ostap77 View Post
    What would be the problem with the first one?
    So the 1st one is incorrect?

  5. #5
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    Default Re: to have learned vs had learned

    Quote Originally Posted by ostap77 View Post
    So the 1st one is incorrect?
    I have a feeling about this, but I need to check my grammars, so don't take it as certain.

    My feeling is that we can use the present or perfect infinitive of BE ofter know + person, but not after other verbs. Thus the first two senetnces below are acceptable, the second too not.

    1. I know him to be honest and sincere.
    2. I know him to have been brave.
    3. I know him to learn German.
    4. I know him to have learnt German.

    As I am re-reading those sentences, I am finding the second strange. I am now more inclining towards:

    2a. I have known him to be brave.

    I am going off to hunt through my grammars. I shall return to this thread to see what others think.

  6. #6
    ostap77 is offline Key Member
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    Default Re: to have learned vs had learned

    Quote Originally Posted by fivejedjon View Post
    I have a feeling about this, but I need to check my grammars, so don't take it as certain.

    My feeling is that we can use the present or perfect infinitive of BE ofter know + person, but not after other verbs. Thus the first two senetnces below are acceptable, the second too not.

    1. I know him to be honest and sincere.
    2. I know him to have been brave.
    3. I know him to learn German.
    4. I know him to have learnt German.

    As I am re-reading those sentences, I am finding the second strange. I am now more inclining towards:

    2a. I have known him to be brave.

    I am going off to hunt through my grammars. I shall return to this thread to see what others think.
    I'd appreciate it.

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