I learned, many years ago, that we use due to only when it is preceded by a linking verb and, in the absence of a linking verb, because of is the preferred phrase. Thus, we would not say that "he faled to act due to his laziness," but rather 'his failure to act was due to...." or "he failed to act because of...." Is this still considered correct? Are there any up-to-date opinions on this matter?
*****
NOT A TEACHER *****
riquecohen,
One of my favorite questions.
(1) Yes, I also learned that "due" is an adjective, and
"because of" is a preposition.
The boss: Why are you late?
The employee: I arrived late due to trafffic problems.
I arrived late because of traffic problems.
My lateness is due (to traffic problems).
According to the rules, only the second and third sentences are
considered "correct."
But, of course, few people would express themselves using the
third sentence.
(2) I think that you are correct: "due to" is now accepted as a
preposition along with "because of." I have no proof to offer, but
I can report the following:
At the best (in my opinion) adult ESL school in the United States,
the final examination in advanced classes accepts "due to" as a
preposition in sentences such as: I arrived late due to traffic
problems.
I think a few people are trying to keep "due to" an adjective, but they
have lost the battle, along with the few people who insist on saying
"It is
I."
*****
NOT a teacher *****
P. S. And I suspect the people who insist on "This secret is between
you and me" will lose to the growing numbers who say " ... between
you and I."
As you know, language is truly democratic. The majority rules.