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I guess e2e4 is going to say that it's messed up again. Let's wait what native speakers say, shall we??!!!
1)"He said there's going to be many people waiting for us at the conference hall."
2)"He said that many people are going to be waiting for us at the conference hall."
Does 1) sound OK? There wouldn't be any difference between these two for me?
Last edited by ostap77; 13-Dec-2010 at 19:50.
Technically, 1 is incorrect, but it's something may native speakers will say, in the UK at least. It's a colloquial form, but it's very common in some areas- I hear that sort of thing a lot in London, where you'll hear things like There's two things I have to say.... However, this is non-standard and will be considered wrong by many.
Starting a thread with this is basically inviting trouble, so please don't do it. Start a discussion as a discussion and not an invitation to fight, please.I guess e2e4 is going to say that it's messed up again. Let's wait what native speakers say, shall we??!!!
It's an interesting point of grammar, and I note that different languages cope differently with it.
Spanish has one word; hay. Hay un ombre; Hay dos hombres. ("There's one man; There's/there're two men").
Il y a in French can mean either: Il ya a un homme; Il y a deux hommes.
Es gibt is used for both in German.
On the other hand, Italian has c’è and ci sono. C'è un uomo; Ci sono due uomini.
So, I don't think there's any grammatical reason why English shouldn't use "There's" as both singular and plural. And in fact, many of us do.
Just in case you didn't notice this, however, all of these are about "There's" in a contracted form. I would suggest that the native speakers who are comfortable using "there's" for a plural subject [and I am one of them] would not use "There is..." but rather "There are..." in the non-contracted form.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.