Your version reminds me of a story a colleague of mine told me the other day. He spoke of an American student of his who always uses a future tense in a temporal clause justifying himself by asserting that that is the common way to do it in the US now. Your statement seems to support this. Can you confirm it?
I see nothing in my post that suggests that this is the the common way to do this in the US now. I was merely presenting an alternative.