[Grammar] Recognizing an infinitive

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JIM1984

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When the infinitive form can be recognized, usually, with a 'to' before it: to eat, to sing, to be, etc, how then is a word which follows categorized, as in to be understood, to be seen, etc? Is it, for want of a better term, just another part of the infinitive (phrase)?
 

Verona_82

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Hi.
*not a teacher*
Those are passive infinitives. At least they were called so by the people who taught me.
 

5jj

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These days many people prefer to speak of the (bare) infinitive, as in:..... I can see,.....they must go,.....shall we dance?

and the to-infinitive, as in:..... To err is human, .....I want to leave,,.....don't you want to stay?.

As Verona noted, to be understood is a passive (to-)infinitive, made up of the to-infinitive of BE and the past participle (or third form) of UNDERSTAND.
 

JIM1984

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These days many people prefer to speak of the (bare) infinitive, as in:..... I can see,.....they must go,.....shall we dance?

and the to-infinitive, as in:..... To err is human, .....I want to leave,,.....don't you want to stay?.

As Verona noted, to be understood is a passive (to-)infinitive, made up of the to-infinitive of BE and the past participle (or third form) of UNDERSTAND.
3
Thanks for the analysis very well explained.
 
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