Hi, I was reading some threads and one of them reminded me of something that I was always confused about,
`I want you to not be hurt` was the original sentence and I wanted to ask if it would mean the same if the author wrote `I want you not to be hurt`.
And which of those sentences means `I don`t want you to be hurt`?
To add to trustM's advice, both  and  express the same meaning:
 I want you to not be hurt.
 I want you not to be hurt.
Some speakers might find sentence  ungrammatical because the adverb "not" occurs between "to" and "be". You see, "to be" is an infinitive verb, and according to traditionalists, those who'd like to see the language stay the same, and not undergo any change, the rule is, one should never split an infinite, which we have done in :
 I want you tonotbe hurt.
But, but . . . there are grammarians, the descriptivists, those who describe how speakers use language, who would find sentence  perfectly acceptable. The argument there is, "not" is moved for emphasis:
 I want you to NOT be hurt. (capitals represent emphasis)
Another--and probably less complicated--way to phrase  and  would be,
 I do not want you to be hurt. / I don't want you to be hurt.
Here "not" is added to the main verb.
All three example sentences are acceptable, and express the same basic meaning: I don't want you to be hurt.