learnerr
Member
- Joined
- Mar 30, 2011
- Member Type
- Student or Learner
- Native Language
- Korean
- Home Country
- South Korea
- Current Location
- United States
Hi, I'm a student majoring in English grammar and got some questions
I know that in some cases "to-infinitive" is used as a noun after the intransitive verb. (as a kind of an object for intransitive verb)
Like "I agree to leave", "He failed to make his case" (quoted from Wikipedia)
The question is,
In the case of "He tends to be unhappy" , is 'to-infinitive' also used as a noun-like infinitive? just like the ones used in the examples above?
Or is 'tend to do' just one of special phrases like 'have to do, ought to do, get to do"?
Hope you'd answer me!
I know that in some cases "to-infinitive" is used as a noun after the intransitive verb. (as a kind of an object for intransitive verb)
Like "I agree to leave", "He failed to make his case" (quoted from Wikipedia)
The question is,
In the case of "He tends to be unhappy" , is 'to-infinitive' also used as a noun-like infinitive? just like the ones used in the examples above?
Or is 'tend to do' just one of special phrases like 'have to do, ought to do, get to do"?
Hope you'd answer me!
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