Dear teachers and English speakers
I hope you could help me with questions about Object Complement.
I know that some verbs need object complements and the direct object after the verb is used as a subject for object complement.
For example, " I forced him to do it"
In this case, him is used as a subject for to do it.
also heard that him to do it itself works as direct object of the verb forced.
What I want to ask is, do native English-speakers grammatically accept 'him to do it' as a direct object of the verb?
In my opinion, him to do it is just meaningly the direct object, not grammatically.
the verb itself needs Object and Objective complement.
It's a bit hard for me to express what I'm puzzling over, in other words,
Do native speakers think Object and Objective complement separately completes the verb 'force'? (Although quite hard to say 'separately')
Do they accept it as I/forced/him/ to do it or
I/forced/him to do it?
I hope you understood what I'm actually asking about.
Plz help me out!
To clarify what I meant,
'On the whole' him to do it could be just ,overall, direct object of the forced "I forced him to do it"
but, when you accept it, him and to do it is separate.
Am I right?
The reason I am having question is , so far, I have learned that in case of that example
to infinitive works as objective complement. I have searched Google and most of the sites said they are indeed to infinitives except for one site. According to http://www.testyourenglish.net/engli...cts/infin.html
he asked me to bring some food.
The infinitive phrase functions as the direct object of the verb asked.
me (actor or "subject" of infinitive phrase)
to bring (infinitive)
some food (direct object of action expressed in infinitive)
Everyone wanted Carol to be the captain of the team.
The infinitive phrase functions as the direct object of the verb wanted.
Carol (actor or "subject" of infinitive phrase)
to be (infinitive)
the captain (subject complement for Carol, via state of being expressed in infinitive)
of the team (prepositional phrase as adjective)
If this site is right, then it means when we say ' He forced me to do it', me is the subject of 'to do it' and 'to do it' is a direct object of the verb? However, the verb force does not take infinitives as its object. does it? for example we don't say 'He forced to do it'
What is right and wrong?
Last edited by learnerr; 07-Apr-2011 at 17:18.
Generally, if you have two verbs, you have two clauses.
I think you are right in:
I forced .... (direct object clause)
... him to do it (non-finite direct object clause as direct object)
a paraphrase could be:
* I forced he did it
him, as subject, is not separate, only it is in the accusative case, also his can function as subject
Similarly to do, do, doing are non-finite verb phrases