1- Should it be parliamentary divorce? If so, then it means her husband divorcede her through parliament because she had a lover. Then having been divorced, she lost the lover. That makes more sense to me.
I have problems with this passage:
"It is set in the late 18th century and early 19th century and tells the story of a Courtesan, Grace Dalrymple Elliot.
Grace did not set out to be a courtesan but when her husband obtained a parliamentary divorcee , she received ?00 a year. Now many people lived on that amount, and less, but Grace was used to better. The
lover who was the subject of her divorce, did a split. She had hopes for awhile that her next lover/protector would marry her , but again that did not pan out."
1."her husband obtained a parliamentary divorcee " - her husband got involved with a divorced woman who worked for the parliament?
2."The lover who was the subject of her divorce, did a split." - Grace divorced because of this lover, but they split afterwards?
Thanks a lot.
I mean it could very possibly be a slip of pen on the writer's part-I'm pretty sure of it having read your post.
Last edited by nonEnglish; 29-Aug-2005 at 20:49.
Otherwise, she'd have got a lot more cash out of him.