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    #1

    kəʊɪn'saɪdəns

    In the 1935 film A Tale of Two Cities, I heard

    ts ə kəʊɪn'saɪdəns tu:. ts wɒt aɪ meɪd əv ɪt miself.

    Have you ever heard this pronunciation of "coincidence"? Why did the man use it?

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    #2

    Re: kəʊɪn'saɪdəns

    Sorry about the other two threads. They had no content after I posted them. (After trying to reply to them I got a message saying the thread was invalid.)

  1. konungursvia's Avatar
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    #3

    Re: kəʊɪn'saɪdəns

    In class-conscious societies, there have always been disadvantaged folk who attempt to speak "properly" and get it wrong, often with hypercorrections. The style poissard in 18th century France is one example.

    Authors often show such people making errors of this kind for humour and characterisation.

  2. 5jj's Avatar
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    #4

    Re: kəʊɪn'saɪdəns

    Quote Originally Posted by konungursvia View Post
    In class-conscious societies, there have always been disadvantaged folk who attempt to speak "properly" and get it wrong, often with hypercorrections. The style poissard in 18th century France is one example.

    Authors often show such people making errors of this kind for humour and characterisation.
    Indeed.

    I have a sneaking suspicion that it is not impossible that I have pronounced the word as /kəʊɪn'saɪdəns/, for a different reason. In a sentence such as "The coincidence of these two marriages resulted in a problem for the chancellor", I may have conflated 'coincidence' and 'coinciding'.

    @ BC:
    ' ts' - capital letters being a feature of the written, not the spoken, language, I believe that the word should be transcribed /ts/, not /ts/

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    #5

    Re: kəʊɪn'saɪdəns

    Quote Originally Posted by fivejedjon View Post

    @ BC:
    ' ts' - capital letters being a feature of the written, not the spoken, language, I believe that the word should be transcribed /ts/, not /ts/
    That's true, but "" is not in the IPA so there's no ambiguity, and I thought it would make the thing easier to read. I may have been wrong.

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