kəʊɪn'saɪdəns

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birdeen's call

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In the 1935 film A Tale of Two Cities, I heard

Ðæts ə kəʊɪn'saɪdəns tu:. Ðæts wɒt aɪ meɪd əv ɪt miself.

Have you ever heard this pronunciation of "coincidence"? Why did the man use it?
 

birdeen's call

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Sorry about the other two threads. They had no content after I posted them. (After trying to reply to them I got a message saying the thread was invalid.)
 

konungursvia

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In class-conscious societies, there have always been disadvantaged folk who attempt to speak "properly" and get it wrong, often with hypercorrections. The style poissard in 18th century France is one example.

Authors often show such people making errors of this kind for humour and characterisation.
 

5jj

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In class-conscious societies, there have always been disadvantaged folk who attempt to speak "properly" and get it wrong, often with hypercorrections. The style poissard in 18th century France is one example.

Authors often show such people making errors of this kind for humour and characterisation.
Indeed.

I have a sneaking suspicion that it is not impossible that I have pronounced the word as /kəʊɪn'saɪdəns/, for a different reason. In a sentence such as "The coincidence of these two marriages resulted in a problem for the chancellor", I may have conflated 'coincidence' and 'coinciding'.

@ BC:
' Ðæts' - capital letters being a feature of the written, not the spoken, language, I believe that the word should be transcribed /ðæts/, not /Ðæts/
 

birdeen's call

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@ BC:
' Ðæts' - capital letters being a feature of the written, not the spoken, language, I believe that the word should be transcribed /ðæts/, not /Ðæts/
That's true, but "Ð" is not in the IPA so there's no ambiguity, and I thought it would make the thing easier to read. I may have been wrong.
 
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