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Thread: "talk to"

  1. #1
    donnach is offline Member
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    "talk to"

    I talked to him.

    I've searched and searched and I just cannot find an answer to this question. So, I will ask it here, and I'm sure I'll get my answer.

    What is "talk to"? A prepositional verb, a phrasal verb, a collocation?

    Or, is "talk" simply a transitive verb in this case, and "to him" a prepositional phrase that forms the direct (indirect?) object.

    Thanks for your help.

  2. #2
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    Re: "talk to"

    Talk is intransitive (in this case) and to him is the IO.

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    donnach is offline Member
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    Re: "talk to"

    Quote Originally Posted by Hedwig View Post
    Talk is intransitive (in this case) and to him is the IO.

    I see. What is the D.O.? What is "to"?

    Thanks!

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    Re: "talk to"

    Quote Originally Posted by donnach View Post
    I see. What is the D.O.? There is none. What is "to"?A preposition.

    Thanks!
    H.
    Not a teacer

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    Re: "talk to"

    Informally, I agree with Hedwig. Pedantically, I disagree,

    I agree that talk is an intransitive verb,and to a preposition, but consider him a prepositional object.

    Compare with:

    1. I gave him a book.
    2. I gave a book to him.


    1. I (subject) gave (verb [transitive]) him (indirect object) a book (direct object).
    2. I
    ( subject) gave (verb [transitive]) a book to (preposition) him (prepositional object).

    Clearly, him in #1 and to him in #2, stand for the same person receiving the book, but the words are used in a different way grammatically.

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    Re: "talk to"

    Quote Originally Posted by fivejedjon View Post
    Informally, I agree with Hedwig. Pedantically, I disagree,

    I agree that talk is an intransitive verb,and to a preposition, but consider him a prepositional object.

    Compare with:

    1. I gave him a book.
    2. I gave a book to him.

    1. I (subject) gave (verb [transitive]) him (indirect object) a book (direct object).
    2. I ( subject) gave (verb [transitive]) a book to (preposition) him (prepositional object).

    Clearly, him in #1 and to him in #2, stand for the same person receiving the book, but the words are used in a different way grammatically.
    I haven't done this sort of thing in donkeys years but, if I remember correctly, your analysis doesn't actually differ from the one I submitted; but it goes a step further (and is not pedantic). You see, the way I was taught to do this at school would be:

    to him: IO (prepositional phrase) in which to is the preposition and him the object to the preposition.

    How does this sound?

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    Re: "talk to"

    Quote Originally Posted by Hedwig View Post
    ... if I remember correctly, your analysis doesn't actually differ from the one I submitted; but it goes a step further (and is not pedantic). You see, the way I was taught to do this at school would be:

    to him: IO (prepositional phrase) in which to is the preposition and him the object to the preposition.

    How does this sound?
    Fine.

    I don't normally take part in discussions on labelling, because my basic thought is "What does it matter what we call it, so long as we understand how it functions?" That is why I said that I agreed with you informally, and suggested that my disagreement was pedantic.

    I think I made my initial comment mainly because I, personally, wasn't too happy with with to him in "I talked to him" as an indirect object. For me, an indirect object is in some way the receiver of something, I do not think that if I am talking to someone they are, strictly speaking, receiving anything, any more than when an American talks with someone.

    Had the initial question been about "I gave him a book", I don't think I would have said anything if you had called to him the indirect object.

    I apologise if I have muddied the waters here.

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    Re: "talk to"

    Quote Originally Posted by fivejedjon View Post
    Fine.

    I don't normally take part in discussions on labelling, because my basic thought is "What does it matter what we call it, so long as we understand how it functions?" Applause! That is why I said that I agreed with you informally, and suggested that my disagreement was pedantic.

    I think I made my initial comment mainly because I, personally, wasn't too happy with with to him in "I talked to him" as an indirect object. For me, an indirect object is in some way the receiver of something, I do not think that if I am talking to someone they are, strictly speaking, receiving anything, any more than when an American talks with someone. Makes perfect sense to me.

    Had the initial question been about "I gave him a book", I don't think I would have said anything if you had called to him the indirect object.

    I apologise if I have muddied the waters here.
    And perhasp we're discussing the sex of angels, aren't we?

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    Re: "talk to"

    Quote Originally Posted by Hedwig View Post
    And perhasp we're discussing the sex of angels, aren't we?
    Exactly.

  10. #10
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    Re: "talk to"

    I tried to post this question in the diagramming sentences forum, but it got moved back here. Labeling helps me for some reason. Not sure if it's just the way my mind works, or if it's that I don't yet have a deep enough understanding of the underlying structure of English (even though I'm a native speaker).

    What is the D.O.? There is none.

    Sorry, but I'm wondering if you can have a sentence with an I.O. without a D.O.

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